A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for four antepartum clients. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
2-hr postprandial glucose 105 mg/dL.
Negative group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
Hgb 13 g/dL.
2+ proteinuria.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Airborne precautions are implemented for diseases that spread through small airborne particles, such as tuberculosis or measles. These diseases can remain suspended in the air for extended periods and be inhaled by others. Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is primarily spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes, making airborne precautions unnecessary.
Choice B reason:
Droplet precautions are appropriate for illnesses that spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person talks, coughs, or sneezes. Pertussis falls into this category as it is transmitted mainly through respiratory droplets. By implementing droplet precautions, the nurse will minimize the risk of transmission to others, including healthcare workers and other patients.
Choice C reason:
Standard precautions are the baseline infection prevention practices used for all patients to prevent the spread of infections in healthcare settings. While important, they may not be sufficient to control the transmission of pertussis, as it requires additional measures like droplet precautions due to its specific mode of transmission.
Choice D reason:
Neutropenic precautions are used for patients with compromised immune systems, particularly those with low white blood cell counts (neutropenia). The purpose is to protect these vulnerable individuals from exposure to infectious agents. However, pertussis precautions are different and do not fall under the neutropenic category.
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