A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for four antepartum clients. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
2-hr postprandial glucose 105 mg/dL.
Negative group B streptococcus B-hemolytic.
Hgb 13 g/dL.
2+ proteinuria.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice D reason: The nurse should report the laboratory result of 2+ proteinuria (Choice D) to the healthcare provider. Proteinuria is the presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate a potential kidney problem or a complication related to pregnancy, such as preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs like the liver and kidneys. Therefore, this result needs immediate attention to assess the client's condition properly and take appropriate actions to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Choice A reason:
The 2-hour postprandial glucose level of 105 mg/dL (Choice A) is within the normal range. During pregnancy, glucose levels are carefully monitored to check for gestational diabetes. In this case, the result falls within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's glucose levels are stable, and gestational diabetes is not a concern at this time.
Choice B reason:
A negative group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic result (Choice B) is actually a positive finding. It means that the client does not have an active infection with group B streptococcus, which is essential information for the management of labor and delivery. Therefore, there is no need to report this result to the provider as it indicates a favorable condition.
Choice C reason:
The hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 13 g/dL (Choice C) is within the normal range for a non- pregnant adult female. During pregnancy, blood volume increases, and hemoglobin levels can naturally decrease. However, the provided value is still within the acceptable range, indicating that the client's blood oxygen-carrying capacity is adequate and there is no immediate concern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Brown in color. The rationale for this choice is that a partial-thickness burn involves damage to the epidermis and the dermis but not the full thickness of the skin. It typically presents with redness, swelling, and blisters. While the burned area may have some discoloration, it is more likely to be red or pink rather than brown. Brown coloration would suggest a deeper burn involving the full thickness of the skin and potentially underlying structures.
Choice B reason:
Leathery appearance. This choice is not expected in a partial-thickness burn. A leathery appearance is characteristic of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn, which involves the destruction of the epidermis, dermis, and potentially deeper tissues. In a partial-thickness burn, the skin may appear red, swollen, and blistered, but it should not have a leathery texture.
Choice C reason:
Visible ligaments. This choice is not indicative of a partial-thickness burn either. Partial- thickness burns primarily affect the epidermis and dermis, but they do not extend deep enough to expose ligaments or other structures below the skin. Visible ligaments would suggest a full-thickness burn or an injury that extends beyond the skin layers.
Choice D reason:
Blister formation. This is the correct choice. Blister formation is a common clinical manifestation of a partial-thickness burn. The injury causes fluid accumulation between the layers of the skin (epidermis and dermis), leading to the formation of blisters. The blisters may be filled with clear fluid and are usually painful and sensitive to touch.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should maintain continuous observation of the adolescent.
Choice A reason:
The first and most crucial action when a patient expresses an intention to self-harm is to ensure their safety. By maintaining continuous observation, the nurse can closely monitor the adolescent's behavior and intervene promptly if any signs of self-harm emerge. This action helps prevent immediate harm and allows for timely interventions.
Choice B reason:
Applying wrist restraints to the adolescent (Choice B) would not be appropriate in this situation. Restraints are typically used as a last resort for patients who pose a danger to themselves or others and only when less restrictive measures have failed. In the case of self- harm, using restraints can increase the patient's distress and potentially worsen the situation.
Choice C reason:
Collecting data about the adolescent's mental status (Choice C) is an essential step in understanding their overall condition, but it should not be the first action taken. While gathering data is important for a comprehensive assessment, immediate safety concerns must take precedence.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining consent from the adolescent's guardian for the application of restraints (Choice D) is not the first priority when the patient expresses an intention to self-harm. The focus should be on ensuring the patient's immediate safety, and consent for restraints may be necessary only if other interventions prove inadequate.
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