A nurse is caring for an adolescent who states an intention to self-harm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Maintain continuous observation of the adolescent.
Apply wrist restraints to the adolescent.
Collect data about the adolescent's mental status.
Obtain consent from the adolescent's guardian for the application of restraints.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should maintain continuous observation of the adolescent.
Choice A reason:
The first and most crucial action when a patient expresses an intention to self-harm is to ensure their safety. By maintaining continuous observation, the nurse can closely monitor the adolescent's behavior and intervene promptly if any signs of self-harm emerge. This action helps prevent immediate harm and allows for timely interventions.
Choice B reason:
Applying wrist restraints to the adolescent (Choice B) would not be appropriate in this situation. Restraints are typically used as a last resort for patients who pose a danger to themselves or others and only when less restrictive measures have failed. In the case of self- harm, using restraints can increase the patient's distress and potentially worsen the situation.
Choice C reason:
Collecting data about the adolescent's mental status (Choice C) is an essential step in understanding their overall condition, but it should not be the first action taken. While gathering data is important for a comprehensive assessment, immediate safety concerns must take precedence.
Choice D reason:
Obtaining consent from the adolescent's guardian for the application of restraints (Choice D) is not the first priority when the patient expresses an intention to self-harm. The focus should be on ensuring the patient's immediate safety, and consent for restraints may be necessary only if other interventions prove inadequate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The fracture does not cross through the bone. Choice A reason:
The statement in Choice A is incorrect because it describes a greenstick fracture as the bone bending and causing a microscopic fracture line. This is not true for a greenstick fracture. A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone bends and partially breaks on one side while remaining intact on the other side. The rationale for this is that pediatric bones are more flexible than adult bones, and when a force is applied, they tend to bend rather than completely break.
Choice B reason:
Choice B is the correct answer. A greenstick fracture does not cross through the bone; it involves only one side of the bone being broken while the other side remains intact. This type of fracture is common in children because their bones are still developing and contain more collagen, making them more flexible and prone to bending rather than breaking completely.
Choice C reason:
The statement in Choice C is incorrect because it describes a different type of fracture. A compressed fracture involves the bone being crushed or shortened, leading to a raised area at the fracture site. This is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture, which involves bending and partial breakage rather than compression.
Choice D reason:
The statement in Choice D is incorrect because it describes a complete fracture that completely divides the bone into two separate pieces. A greenstick fracture, as explained earlier, is an incomplete fracture and does not completely divide the bone.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The client stating, "This test is to check if my baby has diabetes,” indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the 1-hr glucose tolerance test (GTT). The test is performed to screen for gestational diabetes in the mother, not to check the baby's diabetes status. Rationale: Gestational diabetes is a condition where high blood sugar levels develop during pregnancy, and it can affect both the mother and the baby's health.
Choice B reason:
The client mentioning, "If the result is higher than normal, I will need to be on insulin the rest of my life,” demonstrates a misconception about the implications of the 1-hr GTT. The 1-hr GTT is a preliminary screening test, and if the results are higher than normal, it indicates the need for further evaluation, but it does not immediately mean a lifetime dependence on insulin. Rationale: Insulin therapy may be required for managing gestational diabetes in some cases, but not necessarily for the rest of the mother's life.
Choice C reason:
The client saying, "If I forget and eat before the test, then I won't be able to have the test done,” indicates a misunderstanding of the test procedure. The 1-hr GTT requires fasting before the test, typically for 8 to 14 hours, to get accurate results. However, if the client mistakenly eats before the test, it doesn't mean they cannot have the test done at all; they may need to reschedule it after an appropriate fasting period. Rationale: Fasting is crucial for accurate glucose level measurement during the test.
Choice D reason:
The client stating, "If the results are high, then I need another test to see if I have gestational diabetes,” demonstrates a correct understanding of the 1-hr GTT. If the initial screening test shows elevated glucose levels, further testing, such as the 3-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT), is required to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. Rationale: The 3-hour GTT is a more comprehensive diagnostic test used to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.