A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a newly licensed nurse about discharge planning.
Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
The nurse is responsible for providing a written prescription for a client home care referral.
The nurse should begin discharge planning upon the client’s admission.
A home hazard appraisal includes an assessment of the client’s financial resources.
A medication reconciliation is required 24 hours prior to the client’s discharge.
The Correct Answer is B
The nurse should begin discharge planning upon the client’s admission. This is because discharge planning is a key aspect of effective care that reduces the length of stay, emergency readmissions and pressure on hospital beds. Discharge planning involves considering what support might be required by the client in the community, referring the client to these services, and liaising with these services to manage the client’s discharge.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse is not responsible for providing a written prescription for a client home care referral. This is the role of the provider or another authorised prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because a home hazard appraisal does not include an assessment of the client’s financial resources. A home hazard appraisal is an evaluation of the safety and accessibility of the client’s home environment.
Choice D is wrong because a medication reconciliation is not required 24 hours prior to the client’s discharge. A medication reconciliation is a process of comparing the medications a client is taking with those prescribed for them to avoid errors or discrepancies. A medication reconciliation should be done at every transition of care, including admission, transfer and discharge.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Frequent swallowing after a tonsillectomy may indicate postoperative bleeding. The nurse should check the back of the throat with a pen light to assess for signs of hemorrhage.
B. While obtaining vital signs is important, it does not directly address the concern of potential bleeding.
C. Administering analgesia is appropriate for pain management but does not address the priority concern of bleeding.
D. Offering water could potentially worsen bleeding if it is occurring and should not be the first action.
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