A nurse in a provider’s office is reinforcing teaching with a client about performing testicular self-examination.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
“Perform the self-examination every 3 months.”
“Examine your testicles after a warm shower.”
“Palpate both testicles firmly with your fingertips.”
“Apply a cool compress to the scrotum prior to examination.”
The Correct Answer is B
Examine your testicles after a warm shower.
This is because a warm shower will relax the scrotum and the muscles holding the testicles, making an exam easier. You should gently roll the scrotum with your fingers to feel the surface of each testicle and check for any lumps, bumps, swelling, hardness or other changes.
Choice A is wrong because you should perform the self-examination every month, not every 3 months.
This will help you notice any changes over time.
Choice C is wrong because you should not palpate both testicles firmly with your fingertips. You should use a gentle touch and avoid squeezing or pressing too hard.
Choice D is wrong because you should not apply a cool compress to the scrotum prior to examination. This will make the scrotum contract and tighten, making an exam more difficult.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower the heart rate and blood pressure. A normal pulse rate for adults is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate of 48/min is too low and indicates bradycardia, which can cause dizziness, fainting, or cardiac arrest. Verapamil should not be given to patients with bradycardia or heart block.
Choice A is wrong because blood pressure 170/82 mm Hg is high and verapamil can help lower it. A normal blood pressure for adults is less than 120/80 mm Hg.
Choice B is wrong because respiratory rate 18/min is normal and verapamil does not affect it. A normal respiratory rate for adults is between 12 and 20 breaths per minute.
Choice D is wrong because potassium 4 mEq/L is normal and verapamil does not affect it. A normal potassium level for adults is between 3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L.
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