A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and Rh-negative. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following maternal laboratory test results to determine maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?
Homocysteine.
Indirect Coombs.
Erythropoietin.
aPTT.
The Correct Answer is B
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should explain that the injection is administered in order to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB) in the newborn. Vitamin K is needed for blood clotting, but newborn babies have very low levels of vitamin K in their bodies at birth because only small amounts of the vitamin pass through the placenta and breast milk. VKDB can cause life-threatening bleeding in various parts of the body, such as the brain, intestines, or skin. VKDB can be classified into early-onset, classic, or late- onset depending on the time of presentation after birth. The most effective way to prevent VKDB is to give a single intramuscular dose of 0.5 to 1 mg of vitamin K to all newborn infants within 6 hours of birth.
Choice A is wrong because sepsis is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by bacterial infection.
Choice B is wrong because tachypnea is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by respiratory distress or other conditions.
Choice D is wrong because jaundice is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
“I will not play soccer until my doctor tells me I can.” This statement indicates that the client understands the risk of splenic rupture due to splenomegaly and the need to avoid contact sports until the spleen returns to normal size.
Choice A is wrong because antibiotics are not effective for infectious mononucleosis, which is caused by a virus.
Choice C is wrong because varicella booster is not related to infectious mononucleosis and there is no evidence that the client needs it.
Choice D is wrong because jaundice (yellowing of the eyes and skin) is not a common manifestation of infectious mononucleosis and may indicate another condition such as hepatitis.
Normal ranges for spleen size are 7 to 14 cm in length and 3 to 4 cm in thickness.
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