A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and Rh-negative. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following maternal laboratory test results to determine maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?
Homocysteine.
Indirect Coombs.
Erythropoietin.
aPTT.
The Correct Answer is B
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Nursing Test Bank
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should explain that the injection is administered in order to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB) in the newborn. Vitamin K is needed for blood clotting, but newborn babies have very low levels of vitamin K in their bodies at birth because only small amounts of the vitamin pass through the placenta and breast milk. VKDB can cause life-threatening bleeding in various parts of the body, such as the brain, intestines, or skin. VKDB can be classified into early-onset, classic, or late- onset depending on the time of presentation after birth. The most effective way to prevent VKDB is to give a single intramuscular dose of 0.5 to 1 mg of vitamin K to all newborn infants within 6 hours of birth.
Choice A is wrong because sepsis is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by bacterial infection.
Choice B is wrong because tachypnea is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by respiratory distress or other conditions.
Choice D is wrong because jaundice is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is a manifestation of a fat embolism, which is a condition where particles of fat get into the bloodstream and block blood flow. A fat embolism can occur after trauma or surgery to the legs, when fat from the bone marrow escapes into the bloodstream.
Choice A is wrong because a report of pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 is not specific to a fat embolism.
Pain is a common symptom of many conditions and injuries.
Choice B is wrong because pulses 2+ distal to the client’s fracture are normal and indicate adequate blood flow to the extremity.
Choice D is wrong because bruising around the fracture site is an expected finding after a compound fracture and does not indicate a fat embolism.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mmHg to 120/80 mmHg and for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute.
Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin.
They can range in size from pinpoint to several millimeters. Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is a serious complication of a fat embolism that affects the lungs, skin or brain and can be fatal. FES usually occurs 12 to 72 hours after trauma.
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