A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and Rh-negative. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following maternal laboratory test results to determine maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?
Homocysteine.
Indirect Coombs.
Erythropoietin.
aPTT.
The Correct Answer is B
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Ask the client to empty their bladder.
This is because a full bladder can interfere with the pelvic examination and cause discomfort to the client. The nurse should also instruct the client to avoid douching, using tampons, vaginal medications, sprays, powders, birth control foam, cream, or jelly for at least 24 hours before the exam.
Choice A is wrong because the client should be placed in a lithotomy position, not a prone position, for a pelvic examination.
Choice C is wrong because douching can alter the normal vaginal flora and pH, and increase the risk of infection.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client’s arms over their head can tighten the abdominal muscles and make the examination more difficult. The nurse should ask the client to place their arms at their sides or across their chest.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Correct Answers:Distractibility. Grandiose thinking. Flight of ideas.
These are the common symptoms of mania in bipolar disorder.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
- Choice A is wrong because anhedonia, which means loss of interest or pleasure in activities, is a symptom of depression, not mania.
- Choice D is wrong because overeating is not a specific symptom of mania, although some people with bipolar disorder may have changes in appetite or weight during mood episodes.
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