A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and Rh-negative. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following maternal laboratory test results to determine maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?
Homocysteine.
Indirect Coombs.
Erythropoietin.
aPTT.
The Correct Answer is B
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should begin discharge planning upon the client’s admission. This is because discharge planning is a key aspect of effective care that reduces the length of stay, emergency readmissions and pressure on hospital beds. Discharge planning involves considering what support might be required by the client in the community, referring the client to these services, and liaising with these services to manage the client’s discharge.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse is not responsible for providing a written prescription for a client home care referral. This is the role of the provider or another authorised prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because a home hazard appraisal does not include an assessment of the client’s financial resources. A home hazard appraisal is an evaluation of the safety and accessibility of the client’s home environment.
Choice D is wrong because a medication reconciliation is not required 24 hours prior to the client’s discharge. A medication reconciliation is a process of comparing the medications a client is taking with those prescribed for them to avoid errors or discrepancies. A medication reconciliation should be done at every transition of care, including admission, transfer and discharge.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The task involves making ongoing judgments about client data. This is a contraindication to delegating a task to an AP because the AP is not trained or authorized to make clinical decisions or assessments. The nurse is responsible for evaluating the client’s condition and needs, and delegating only tasks that are within the AP’s scope of practice and do not require critical thinking.
Choice B is wrong because the task is within the AP’s range of function to perform.
This is a criterion for delegating a task to an AP, not a contraindication. The nurse should ensure that the AP has the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the task safely and effectively.
Choice C is wrong because the task can be performed in the same manner for most clients.
This is also a criterion for delegating a task to an AP, not a contraindication. The nurse should delegate tasks that are routine, standardized, and have predictable outcomes.
Choice D is wrong because the task requires a specific sequence of steps.
This is not a contraindication to delegating a task to an AP, as long as the AP is competent and familiar with the procedure. The nurse should provide clear instructions and expectations for the task, and monitor the AP’s performance.
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