A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and Rh-negative. The nurse should plan to monitor which of the following maternal laboratory test results to determine maternal-fetal blood incompatibility?
Homocysteine.
Indirect Coombs.
Erythropoietin.
aPTT.
The Correct Answer is B
The indirect Coombs test is used to detect antibodies against foreign red blood cells in the maternal serum. This test can help identify maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, which can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Choice A is wrong because homocysteine is a type of amino acid and is not related to blood compatibility.
Choice C is incorrect because erythropoietin is a hormone that regulates red blood cell production and is not a specific test for detecting maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Choice D is not the correct answer as aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting factors and is not directly related to monitoring maternal-fetal blood incompatibility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should explain that the injection is administered in order to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding (VKDB) in the newborn. Vitamin K is needed for blood clotting, but newborn babies have very low levels of vitamin K in their bodies at birth because only small amounts of the vitamin pass through the placenta and breast milk. VKDB can cause life-threatening bleeding in various parts of the body, such as the brain, intestines, or skin. VKDB can be classified into early-onset, classic, or late- onset depending on the time of presentation after birth. The most effective way to prevent VKDB is to give a single intramuscular dose of 0.5 to 1 mg of vitamin K to all newborn infants within 6 hours of birth.
Choice A is wrong because sepsis is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by bacterial infection.
Choice B is wrong because tachypnea is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by respiratory distress or other conditions.
Choice D is wrong because jaundice is not caused by vitamin K deficiency, but by high levels of bilirubin in the blood.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Face the client at eye level when communicating.

This is because eye contact helps to establish rapport and trust with the client who has dementia and shows respect and attention. Facing the client at eye level also reduces distractions and background noise that might interfere with communication.
Choice B is wrong because offering correction of incorrect client statements can increase confusion, frustration, and agitation in the client who has dementia. Instead of correcting the client, the nurse should acknowledge their feelings and try to understand their perspective.
Choice C is wrong because reorienting the client to date and time with each encounter can be stressful and ineffective for the client who has dementia. Reorientation may work in the early stages of dementia, but as the disease progresses, the client may lose their ability to retain new information and may become more disoriented. Instead of reorienting the client, the nurse should use orienting names or labels whenever possible, such as “Your son, Jack” .
Choice D is wrong because avoiding using gestures when communicating with the client who has dementia can limit the nurse’s ability to convey meaning and emotion. Gestures can help to supplement verbal communication and provide cues for the client who has difficulty understanding words. However, the nurse should avoid using gestures that might be misinterpreted or threatening to the client, such as pointing or waving .
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