A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for an adolescent who is scheduled for a surgical procedure.
For which of the following laboratory values should the nurse notify the provider?
Platelet count 120,000/mm².
WBC count 9,800/mm³.
Hgb 13 mg/dL.
Hct 42%.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should notify the provider because this value is lower than the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood. A low platelet count can indicate a risk of bleeding or a condition such as thrombocytopenia or disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Choice B is wrong because WBC count 9,800/mm³ is within the normal range of 4,500 to 11,000 cells per microliter of blood.
Choice C is wrong because Hgb 13 mg/dL is within the normal range of 12 to 16 mg/dL for females and 14 to 18 mg/dL for males.
Choice D is wrong because Hct 42% is within the normal range of 37% to 47% for females and 42% to 52% for males.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The nurse should begin discharge planning upon the client’s admission. This is because discharge planning is a key aspect of effective care that reduces the length of stay, emergency readmissions and pressure on hospital beds. Discharge planning involves considering what support might be required by the client in the community, referring the client to these services, and liaising with these services to manage the client’s discharge.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse is not responsible for providing a written prescription for a client home care referral. This is the role of the provider or another authorised prescriber.
Choice C is wrong because a home hazard appraisal does not include an assessment of the client’s financial resources. A home hazard appraisal is an evaluation of the safety and accessibility of the client’s home environment.
Choice D is wrong because a medication reconciliation is not required 24 hours prior to the client’s discharge. A medication reconciliation is a process of comparing the medications a client is taking with those prescribed for them to avoid errors or discrepancies. A medication reconciliation should be done at every transition of care, including admission, transfer and discharge.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
BMI 32.2.
A high body mass index (BMI) is a major risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus, as it indicates overweight or obesity.
Overweight or obesity can cause insulin resistance, which means the body cells do not respond well to insulin and cannot take up glucose from the blood. This leads to high blood sugar levels and diabetes.
Choice A is wrong because history of exercise-induced asthma is not a risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Asthma is a respiratory condition that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airways, but it does not affect the metabolism of glucose or insulin.
Choice B is wrong because age 35 years is not a risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Although the risk of diabetes increases with age, especially after 45 years, it can also occur in younger people.
Age alone is not enough to cause diabetes.
Choice C is wrong because history of mumps is not a risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Mumps is a viral infection that affects the salivary glands, but it does not damage the pancreas or impair insulin production.
Some other risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus are family history, race or ethnicity, physical inactivity, prediabetes, gestational diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and smoking.
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