A nurse is reinforcing teaching about colostrum with a new mother who is breastfeeding.
The mother asks, "Why is colostrum so important for my baby?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Colostrum provides many important antibodies that the newborn lacks.”
"Colostrum provides vitamin K, which is an essential nutrient for newborns.”
"Colostrum contains iron, which is important for a newborn's brain development.”
"Colostrum contains a natural diuretic that stimulates the newborn to void.”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Colostrum, the initial breast milk produced after childbirth, is crucial for a newborn's health because it contains a high concentration of antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins (IgA), which provide passive immunity to the baby. These antibodies are essential because a newborn's immune system is immature and not yet capable of producing its antibodies. IgA antibodies in colostrum help protect the baby against various infections, including respiratory and gastrointestinal illnesses. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the importance of colostrum in providing immune protection for the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Colostrum does not primarily provide vitamin K. While vitamin K is essential for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders, it is not the primary function of colostrum. Colostrum's primary role is to provide immune protection.
Choice C rationale:
Colostrum does contain trace amounts of iron, but its iron content is not the primary reason for its importance. Iron stores in a newborn's body are typically established during the third trimester of pregnancy, and colostrum is not a significant source of iron for the baby. The primary role of colostrum is to provide antibodies, not iron.
Choice D rationale:
Colostrum does not contain a natural diuretic. Its purpose is not to stimulate the newborn to void. Instead, it focuses on providing immune protection and essential nutrients for the baby's initial growth and development.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Elevates the legs before applying the stockings: This is a correct action. Elevating the client's legs before applying elastic antiembolic stockings can help reduce swelling and improve blood flow. It's an appropriate step to prepare the client for the stockings.
B. Measures the client's calf circumference before selecting the stocking size: This is a correct action. Proper sizing of elastic antiembolic stockings is crucial to ensure they are effective and do not cause discomfort or complications. Measuring the client's calf circumference helps in selecting the right size.
C. Applies lotion to the client's legs before putting on the stockings: This is an incorrect action. Applying lotion to the legs before putting on stockings can make the stockings less effective and may cause them to slide down. Lotions or creams can create a barrier that interferes with the compression provided by the stockings.
D. Rolls down the stockings from the thigh to the ankle: This is an incorrect action. Elastic antiembolic stockings should be applied carefully, starting at the ankle and rolling them up to the thigh. Rolling them down from the thigh to the ankle is not the correct technique, as it can impede blood flow and be uncomfortable for the client.
So, the correct answers are A and B. These actions indicate that the AP is performing the skill correctly by preparing the client appropriately and ensuring proper sizing of the stockings.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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