A nurse is reinforcing teaching about colostrum with a new mother who is breastfeeding.
The mother asks, "Why is colostrum so important for my baby?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Colostrum provides many important antibodies that the newborn lacks.”
"Colostrum provides vitamin K, which is an essential nutrient for newborns.”
"Colostrum contains iron, which is important for a newborn's brain development.”
"Colostrum contains a natural diuretic that stimulates the newborn to void.”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Colostrum, the initial breast milk produced after childbirth, is crucial for a newborn's health because it contains a high concentration of antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins (IgA), which provide passive immunity to the baby. These antibodies are essential because a newborn's immune system is immature and not yet capable of producing its antibodies. IgA antibodies in colostrum help protect the baby against various infections, including respiratory and gastrointestinal illnesses. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the importance of colostrum in providing immune protection for the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Colostrum does not primarily provide vitamin K. While vitamin K is essential for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders, it is not the primary function of colostrum. Colostrum's primary role is to provide immune protection.
Choice C rationale:
Colostrum does contain trace amounts of iron, but its iron content is not the primary reason for its importance. Iron stores in a newborn's body are typically established during the third trimester of pregnancy, and colostrum is not a significant source of iron for the baby. The primary role of colostrum is to provide antibodies, not iron.
Choice D rationale:
Colostrum does not contain a natural diuretic. Its purpose is not to stimulate the newborn to void. Instead, it focuses on providing immune protection and essential nutrients for the baby's initial growth and development.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Airborne precautions should be initiated for clients with tuberculosis (TB) who have a productive cough. TB is transmitted through the airborne route when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing infectious droplets into the air. Airborne precautions include the use of negative-pressure isolation rooms and N95 respirators for healthcare workers to prevent the spread of TB.
Choice B rationale:
Protective precautions are not typically used for clients with TB. Protective precautions are more commonly employed for clients with compromised immune systems to protect them from infection.
Choice C rationale:
Droplet precautions are not sufficient for clients with TB because TB is primarily transmitted via airborne particles, not droplets. Droplet precautions are used for diseases like influenza or meningitis, which are transmitted through larger respiratory droplets.
Choice D rationale:
Contact precautions are not appropriate for clients with TB because TB is primarily transmitted through the airborne route. Contact precautions are typically used for diseases that are transmitted through direct contact with the client or contaminated surfaces.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Answer is: A, B, and C.Respiratory rate, oxygen saturation level, and heart rate are the three findings that require immediate follow-up. These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory distress and possible complications of pneumonia, such as sepsis and cardiac arrhythmia. The client needs prompt intervention to improve oxygenation, stabilize the heart rhythm, and treat the infection.
- Statement D is wrong because the chronic health condition of the client (Parkinson’s disease) is not an acute problem that needs immediate attention. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease.
- Statement E is wrong because the current level of consciousness of the client (alert and oriented to self) is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation.
- Statement F is wrong because the tremors of the client are likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures.
Normal ranges for the vital signs and arterial blood gas are as follows:
- Respiratory rate: 12 to 20 breaths per minute
- Oxygen saturation level: 95% to 100%
- Heart rate: 60 to 100 beats per minute
- Blood pressure: less than 120/80 mmHg
- Temperature: 36.5°C to 37.2°C
- Arterial blood gas: pH 7.35 to 7.45, PaO2 80 to 100 mmHg, PaCO2 35 to 45 mmHg, HCO3 22 to 26 mEq/L
Correct answer is: A, B, and C.
Choice A rationale: Respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and labored. This is above the normal range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress. Respiratory distress can lead to hypoxia, tissue damage, and organ failure. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to improve the client’s oxygenation and ventilation.
Choice B rationale: Oxygen saturation level is 88% on room air. This is below the normal range of 95% to 100% and indicates that the client is hypoxemic. Hypoxemia can result from pneumonia, which causes inflammation and fluid accumulation in the alveoli, impairing gas exchange. Hypoxemia can also cause dysrhythmias, confusion, and cyanosis. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to administer supplemental oxygen and monitor the client’s response.
Choice C rationale: Heart rate is 110 beats per minute and irregular. This is above the normal range of 60 to 100 beats per minute and indicates that the client has tachycardia and atrial fibrillation. Tachycardia can result from hypoxia, fever, infection, dehydration, or anxiety. Atrial fibrillation is a type of cardiac arrhythmia that causes irregular and rapid contractions of the atria, reducing the cardiac output and increasing the risk of thromboembolism. Therefore, this finding requires immediate follow-up to identify and treat the underlying cause, stabilize the heart rhythm, and prevent complications.
Choice D rationale: Chronic health condition is Parkinson’s disease. This is not an acute problem that requires immediate follow-up. However, it is important to monitor the client’s tremors and medication regimen for Parkinson’s disease, as they can affect the client’s mobility, safety, and quality of life.
Choice E rationale: Current level of consciousness is alert and oriented to self. This is not abnormal or concerning. However, it is important to monitor the client’s mental status for any signs of confusion or agitation, as they can result from hypoxia, infection, or medication side effects.
Choice F rationale: Tremors are in both hands. This is likely related to the Parkinson’s disease and not to the pneumonia. However, it is important to assess the severity and frequency of the tremors and provide comfort measures, such as warm blankets, massage, or relaxation techniques.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.