A nurse is reinforcing teaching about colostrum with a new mother who is breastfeeding.
The mother asks, "Why is colostrum so important for my baby?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"Colostrum provides many important antibodies that the newborn lacks.”
"Colostrum provides vitamin K, which is an essential nutrient for newborns.”
"Colostrum contains iron, which is important for a newborn's brain development.”
"Colostrum contains a natural diuretic that stimulates the newborn to void.”
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Colostrum, the initial breast milk produced after childbirth, is crucial for a newborn's health because it contains a high concentration of antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins (IgA), which provide passive immunity to the baby. These antibodies are essential because a newborn's immune system is immature and not yet capable of producing its antibodies. IgA antibodies in colostrum help protect the baby against various infections, including respiratory and gastrointestinal illnesses. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the importance of colostrum in providing immune protection for the newborn.
Choice B rationale:
Colostrum does not primarily provide vitamin K. While vitamin K is essential for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders, it is not the primary function of colostrum. Colostrum's primary role is to provide immune protection.
Choice C rationale:
Colostrum does contain trace amounts of iron, but its iron content is not the primary reason for its importance. Iron stores in a newborn's body are typically established during the third trimester of pregnancy, and colostrum is not a significant source of iron for the baby. The primary role of colostrum is to provide antibodies, not iron.
Choice D rationale:
Colostrum does not contain a natural diuretic. Its purpose is not to stimulate the newborn to void. Instead, it focuses on providing immune protection and essential nutrients for the baby's initial growth and development.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should inform the client that they will need periodic TB skin tests to monitor for any reactivation of the infection. This is important for assessing the client's response to treatment and ensuring early detection of any recurrence.
Choice B rationale:
Medications for tuberculosis can cause various side effects, but turning urine a blue-green color is not a common side effect associated with these medications. Providing accurate information about potential side effects is important for informed decision-making, but this statement is not accurate.
Choice C rationale:
The correct response is to inform the client that they are no longer contagious when they have negative sputum cultures. This is an important point to emphasize as it ensures that the client understands when it is safe to be around others without the risk of transmitting the infection.
Choice D rationale:
Telling the client that they will take medication for the rest of their life is incorrect and not appropriate for active pulmonary tuberculosis. Tuberculosis treatment typically involves a combination of medications taken for a specified duration, usually several months, until the infection is effectively treated.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B and C.
Choice A rationale:
Cervical insufficiency is a condition where the cervix begins to shorten and open too early during pregnancy, leading to premature birth or loss of an otherwise healthy pregnancy. However, the client’s symptoms do not indicate cervical insufficiency. There are no reports of lower abdominal pressure, mild pelvic cramps, or a change in vaginal discharge, which are common symptoms of cervical insufficiency.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and hyperactive reflexes (patellar reflex 4+) are indicative of severe preeclampsia. One of the complications of severe preeclampsia is seizures, also known as eclampsia. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing seizures.
Choice C rationale:
Placental abruption is a serious pregnancy complication in which the placenta detaches from the uterus prematurely. The client’s report of decreased fetal movement could be a sign of placental abruption. In addition, severe preeclampsia can increase the risk of placental abruption. Therefore, the client is at risk for developing placental abruption.
Choice D rationale:
Heart failure occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs. While preeclampsia can eventually affect many organ systems including the cardiovascular system, there are no immediate signs of heart failure in the client’s symptoms.
Choice E rationale:
Hypoglycemia refers to low blood sugar levels. The client’s symptoms do not suggest hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia typically include confusion, dizziness, feeling shaky, hunger, headaches, irritability, pounding heart or irregular heartbeat, sweating, trembling or tremors, and weakness. In conclusion, based on the client’s symptoms and clinical presentation, she is at greatest risk for developing seizures (Choice B) and placental abruption (Choice C) due to severe preeclampsia.
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