A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) in the nurses' station discussing a client who was recently admitted.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Document the event in the client's progress notes.
Submit an incident report to the risk manager.
Inform the client of the APs' actions.
Tell the APs to stop the conversation.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D.
Choice A rationale: Documenting the event in the client’s progress notes is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The client’s progress notes should contain information about the client’s health status and care, not about staff behavior. Furthermore, documenting this incident in the client’s notes could potentially violate the client’s privacy if the notes are accessed by individuals who do not need to know about the incident.
Choice B rationale: Submitting an incident report to the risk manager is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Incident reports are typically used for events that have caused or have the potential to cause harm to a client, such as medication errors or falls. In this case, while the APs’ behavior is inappropriate, it has not caused harm to the client.
Choice C rationale: Informing the client of the APs’ actions is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Doing so could unnecessarily worry or upset the client. The nurse’s role is to advocate for the client and protect their privacy and dignity, which includes not sharing information about inappropriate staff behavior with the client.
Choice D rationale: Telling the APs to stop the conversation is the most appropriate action in this situation. The nurse has a professional responsibility to address inappropriate behavior by other healthcare team members. Discussing a client in a public area, such as the nurses’ station, is a breach of client confidentiality. The nurse should remind the APs of the importance of maintaining client confidentiality and direct them to stop the conversation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hegar's sign is a softening of the uterine isthmus, which occurs during early pregnancy. It is not related to changes in the color of the vagina and vulva.
Choice B rationale:
Chloasma refers to the appearance of dark, blotchy, and hyperpigmented skin patches that can occur during pregnancy, primarily on the face. It is not related to changes in the color of the vagina and vulva.
Choice C rationale:
Ballottement is a technique used during a physical examination to assess for a floating fetus within the amniotic fluid. It is not related to changes in the color of the vagina and vulva.
Choice D rationale:
Chadwick's sign is the purplish or bluish discoloration of the vaginal and vulvar mucosa that can occur during pregnancy. This sign is due to increased blood flow to the area, which is a normal physiological change in pregnancy.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Performing a vaginal examination every 12 hours is not necessary in this case. The client is not in labor and there are no indications of any complications that would require frequent vaginal examinations.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s symptoms of severe headache, +3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities, and a patellar reflex of 4+ without the presence of clonus are indicative of severe preeclampsia. Antihypertensive medications are often used to manage high blood pressure in preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of delivering prematurely to help mature the baby’s lungs. Given that the client is at 31 weeks of gestation and has had a previous preterm birth, administering betamethasone would be appropriate.
Choice D rationale:
A low-stimulation environment can help reduce blood pressure and prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia.
Choice E rationale:
Bed rest can help lower blood pressure and improve blood flow to the placenta, which can be beneficial for the baby.
Choice F rationale:
Monitoring intake and output every hour can help assess kidney function, which can be affected by preeclampsia.
Choice G rationale:
A 24-hour urine specimen can provide information about protein levels in the urine, which can indicate the severity of preeclampsia. It’s important to note that normal ranges for lab parameters can vary slightly depending on the lab, but generally, protein levels in a 24-hour urine specimen should be less than 300 mg. Pitting edema is usually graded on a scale of 1+ (mild) to 4+ (severe), and a patellar reflex of 4+ is considered hyperactive and may indicate nervous system hyperexcitability seen in severe preeclampsia or eclampsia.
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