A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) in the nurses' station discussing a client who was recently admitted.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Document the event in the client's progress notes.
Submit an incident report to the risk manager.
Inform the client of the APs' actions.
Tell the APs to stop the conversation.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D.
Choice A rationale: Documenting the event in the client’s progress notes is not the most appropriate action in this situation. The client’s progress notes should contain information about the client’s health status and care, not about staff behavior. Furthermore, documenting this incident in the client’s notes could potentially violate the client’s privacy if the notes are accessed by individuals who do not need to know about the incident.
Choice B rationale: Submitting an incident report to the risk manager is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Incident reports are typically used for events that have caused or have the potential to cause harm to a client, such as medication errors or falls. In this case, while the APs’ behavior is inappropriate, it has not caused harm to the client.
Choice C rationale: Informing the client of the APs’ actions is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Doing so could unnecessarily worry or upset the client. The nurse’s role is to advocate for the client and protect their privacy and dignity, which includes not sharing information about inappropriate staff behavior with the client.
Choice D rationale: Telling the APs to stop the conversation is the most appropriate action in this situation. The nurse has a professional responsibility to address inappropriate behavior by other healthcare team members. Discussing a client in a public area, such as the nurses’ station, is a breach of client confidentiality. The nurse should remind the APs of the importance of maintaining client confidentiality and direct them to stop the conversation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Blood pressure is a crucial parameter to monitor in a pregnant woman. A significant increase in blood pressure could indicate a condition called preeclampsia, which is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to another organ system, often the liver and kidneys. Preeclampsia usually begins after 20 weeks of pregnancy in women whose blood pressure had been normal. Left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious — even fatal — complications for both mother and baby.
Choice B rationale:
While the respiratory rate is an important vital sign, it does not directly indicate a prenatal complication in this context. Normal respiratory rates for an adult range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Changes could indicate a respiratory problem but not specifically a prenatal complication.
Choice C rationale:
Gravida/parity is a standard way to denote a woman's reproductive history but does not indicate a prenatal complication. Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of the outcome, while parity refers to the number of pregnancies carried past 20 weeks, regardless of whether they were born alive or stillborn.
Choice D rationale:
Decreased fetal activity can be a sign of distress in the fetus. It could indicate complications such as poor oxygenation or other conditions that could affect the health of the baby. It's important for pregnant women to monitor their baby's movements daily after 28 weeks.
Choice E rationale:
A severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen in a pregnant woman could be a sign of preeclampsia, especially when accompanied by other symptoms such as high blood pressure and changes in vision. This should be evaluated immediately.
Choice F rationale:
Urine ketones are usually checked in pregnant women who have symptoms of a condition called ketoacidosis, which is often seen in women with gestational diabetes. However, this condition is not indicated in this scenario.
Choice G rationale:
Protein in the urine is another potential sign of preeclampsia. It's caused by kidney problems resulting from the high blood pressure. In normal conditions, protein should not be present in urine or should be very low.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is: c. The AP pulls the pinna up and back.
Choice A reason: The AP inserting the probe with a straight, forward motion is not the correct technique for tympanic temperature measurement. The ear canal does not run straight forward into the head; instead, it curves slightly. Inserting the probe straight forward could potentially damage the ear canal or eardrum and would not provide an accurate temperature reading.
Choice B reason: Pointing the probe posteriorly is also incorrect. The tympanic membrane is located at the end of the ear canal, and the probe should be directed towards it. However, the probe should be angled slightly downward and toward the jawline, not straight back, to align with the ear canal and ensure an accurate reading.
Choice C reason: Pulling the pinna up and back is the correct method for adults and children over one year old. This action straightens the ear canal, allowing the thermometer’s sensor to get a clear path to the tympanic membrane, which is necessary for an accurate temperature reading. For infants, the correct method is to pull the earlobe straight back.
Choice D reason: The AP positioning the client facing her does not directly relate to the technique of measuring tympanic temperature. While it may be necessary for the AP to see the client’s ear, it is not an indication of understanding the correct procedure for tympanic temperature measurement.
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