A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking raloxifene (Evista) to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following options DOES NOT indicate an adverse effect of this medication?
Redness of the lower left leg
Swelling of the lower left leg
Jaundice
Tenderness of the lower left leg
The Correct Answer is C
A. Redness and swelling of the leg may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a known risk with raloxifene.
B. Swelling of the lower leg is a common sign of DVT, which is a potential side effect of raloxifene.
C. Jaundice is not a typical adverse effect of raloxifene. However, if a client experiences jaundice, it could indicate a liver issue, and the medication should be reviewed.
D. Tenderness in the lower leg could also indicate DVT, another serious adverse effect related to raloxifene.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B. Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C. Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D. Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Ginger is known to increase the risk of bleeding when taken with NSAIDs like aspirin because it has anticoagulant properties that can enhance the bleeding effects.
B. Vitamin D does not have an effect on bleeding and is not associated with an increased risk when taken with NSAIDs.
C. Feverfew also has anticoagulant effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when combined with NSAIDs.
D. Garlic has natural blood-thinning properties and can increase the risk of bleeding, particularly when combined with NSAIDs.
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