A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Ibuprofen (Motrin) Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Inhibits mu receptors.

Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.

Decreases the risk of stroke

Inhibits COX 1 and COX-2

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Ibuprofen does not inhibit mu receptors. Mu receptors are associated with opioid actions, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
B.   While long-term use of ibuprofen may increase the risk of cardiovascular events like myocardial infarction, this is not the primary action of the drug.
C.   Ibuprofen does not decrease the risk of stroke. In fact, chronic use of NSAIDs may actually increase the risk of bleeding and stroke.
D.   Ibuprofen inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which are involved in the inflammatory process. This inhibition helps reduce pain, inflammation, and fever.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

A. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that can cause withdrawal symptoms in opioid- dependent clients due to its partial antagonism at mu receptors.
B. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at mu receptors and can also precipitate withdrawal symptoms in individuals who are opioid-dependent.
C. Oxycodone is a full agonist and does not cause withdrawal symptoms unless abruptly discontinued in opioid-dependent individuals.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose and is unlikely to cause abstinence syndrome, although it can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients when used.

A. Subcutaneous (SQ) B. Intravenous (IV) C. Oral (PO) D. Intramuscular (IM)

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.

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A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for Ibuprofen (Motrin) Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing an in-service regarding medications that can cause abstinence syndrome. Which of the following medications can cause abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is educating a client about dantrolene (Dantrium). Which of the following statements indicate the appropriate therapeutic use of this medication?

A nurse is providing education to a client who has migraine headaches and has a new prescription for sumatriptan (Imitrex). Which manifestations Indicate a possible adverse reaction that the nurse should instruct the client to stop taking the medication and notify the provider?

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A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which of the following symptoms indicate a possible complication of this medication?

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