A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

Relief of muscle spasms related to muscle injury.

Relief of spasticity related to cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and multiple sclerosis

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

Treatment of opioid overdose

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Baclofen does not treat muscle spasms resulting from injury, as its primary use is for spasticity related to neurological conditions.
B.   Baclofen is primarily used to treat spasticity, which is commonly seen in conditions such as cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and multiple sclerosis. It works by acting on the central nervous system to reduce muscle stiffness and spasm.
C.   Malignant hyperthermia is typically treated with dantrolene, not baclofen.
D.   Baclofen does not treat opioid overdose; naloxone is the medication used for this purpose.

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Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A. Oxycodone is an opioid agonist, not an antagonist. It is used for pain management.
B. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), not an opioid antagonist. It is used to reduce inflammation and pain.
C. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that blocks the effects of opioids and is used for treating opioid addiction and alcohol use disorder.
D. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose by blocking the effects of opioids on the brain.

A. Butorphanol (Stadol) B. Buprenorphine (Buprenex) C. Oxycodone (Oxycontin) D. Naloxone (Narcan)

Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

A. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that can cause withdrawal symptoms in opioid- dependent clients due to its partial antagonism at mu receptors.
B. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at mu receptors and can also precipitate withdrawal symptoms in individuals who are opioid-dependent.
C. Oxycodone is a full agonist and does not cause withdrawal symptoms unless abruptly discontinued in opioid-dependent individuals.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose and is unlikely to cause abstinence syndrome, although it can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients when used.

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A client has a new prescription for baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following statements should the nurse include as a therapeutic indication for this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation on medication classifications. Which of the following medications are considered opioid antagonists? (Select All That Apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is providing an in-service regarding medications that can cause abstinence syndrome. Which of the following medications can cause abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","B"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) at regular intervals for mild pain. The nurse should tell the client to report which of the following early manifestations of acetaminophen toxicity?

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A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex). The nurse tells the client to report which of the following adverse drug reactions?

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