A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).
Coma
Pinpoint pupils
Fever
Vomiting
Correct Answer : C,D
A. Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B. Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C. Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D. Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
A. Ginger is known to increase the risk of bleeding when taken with NSAIDs like aspirin because it has anticoagulant properties that can enhance the bleeding effects.
B. Vitamin D does not have an effect on bleeding and is not associated with an increased risk when taken with NSAIDs.
C. Feverfew also has anticoagulant effects and can increase the risk of bleeding, especially when combined with NSAIDs.
D. Garlic has natural blood-thinning properties and can increase the risk of bleeding, particularly when combined with NSAIDs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae is an early sign of acetaminophen toxicity. It indicates a potential bleeding disorder due to liver damage, which can occur from prolonged or high-dose use of acetaminophen.
B. Osteoporosis is not a symptom of acetaminophen toxicity.
C. Pneumonia is unrelated to acetaminophen toxicity and is more likely to occur due to infections.
D. Diaphoresis (sweating) is not a primary early symptom of acetaminophen toxicity, although it could occur in later stages of liver failure.
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