A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?
Subcutaneous (SQ)
Intravenous (IV)
Oral (PO)
Intramuscular (IM)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B. Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C. Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D. Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Petechiae is an early sign of acetaminophen toxicity. It indicates a potential bleeding disorder due to liver damage, which can occur from prolonged or high-dose use of acetaminophen.
B. Osteoporosis is not a symptom of acetaminophen toxicity.
C. Pneumonia is unrelated to acetaminophen toxicity and is more likely to occur due to infections.
D. Diaphoresis (sweating) is not a primary early symptom of acetaminophen toxicity, although it could occur in later stages of liver failure.
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