A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?
Subcutaneous (SQ)
Intravenous (IV)
Oral (PO)
Intramuscular (IM)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Redness and swelling of the leg may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a known risk with raloxifene.
B. Swelling of the lower leg is a common sign of DVT, which is a potential side effect of raloxifene.
C. Jaundice is not a typical adverse effect of raloxifene. However, if a client experiences jaundice, it could indicate a liver issue, and the medication should be reviewed.
D. Tenderness in the lower leg could also indicate DVT, another serious adverse effect related to raloxifene.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Oxycodone is an opioid agonist, not an antagonist. It is used for pain management.
B. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), not an opioid antagonist. It is used to reduce inflammation and pain.
C. Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist that blocks the effects of opioids and is used for treating opioid addiction and alcohol use disorder.
D. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose by blocking the effects of opioids on the brain.
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