A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Subcutaneous (SQ)

Intravenous (IV)

Oral (PO)

Intramuscular (IM)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A. Coma is a common symptom of opioid toxicity, including toxicity from fentanyl.
B. Respiratory depression is a hallmark of opioid toxicity and can be life-threatening.
C. Dilated pupils are generally associated with stimulant overdose, not opioid toxicity. Opioid toxicity typically causes pinpoint pupils.
D. Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic sign of opioid toxicity and are present in the opioid toxicity triad.

A. Coma B. Pinpoint pupils C. Fever D. Vomiting

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A. Coma is typically a symptom of opioid overdose, not abstinence syndrome.
B. Pinpoint pupils are commonly associated with opioid toxicity, not abstinence syndrome.
C. Fever is a sign of abstinence syndrome, which can occur after opioid withdrawal.
D. Vomiting is also a symptom of abstinence syndrome, which is a withdrawal reaction that can occur when naloxone reverses opioid effects.

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A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client that was overdosed with fentanyl. The nurse is concerned that the client is experiencing opioid toxicity triad. Which of the following signs indicate that the client is experiencing opioid toxicity triad? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on morphine sulfate (Astramorph) and was provided naloxone (Narcan) via subcutaneous route 15 minutes ago. Which of the following signs indicate that the client has abstinence syndrome? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?

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