A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. Which of the route should the nurse NOT administer this medication?
Subcutaneous (SQ)
Intravenous (IV)
Oral (PO)
Intramuscular (IM)
The Correct Answer is C
A. Subcutaneous administration is an acceptable route for naloxone when IV access is not available.
B. Intravenous administration is an effective route for naloxone, especially in emergency situations where rapid action is needed.
D. Intramuscular administration is also effective and commonly used, especially in opioid overdose situations.
C. Naloxone should not be administered orally because it undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism in the liver, which would significantly reduce its effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist that can cause withdrawal symptoms in opioid- dependent clients due to its partial antagonism at mu receptors.
B. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist at mu receptors and can also precipitate withdrawal symptoms in individuals who are opioid-dependent.
C. Oxycodone is a full agonist and does not cause withdrawal symptoms unless abruptly discontinued in opioid-dependent individuals.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose and is unlikely to cause abstinence syndrome, although it can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients when used.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. Coma is a common symptom of opioid toxicity, including toxicity from fentanyl.
B. Respiratory depression is a hallmark of opioid toxicity and can be life-threatening.
C. Dilated pupils are generally associated with stimulant overdose, not opioid toxicity. Opioid toxicity typically causes pinpoint pupils.
D. Pinpoint pupils (miosis) are a classic sign of opioid toxicity and are present in the opioid toxicity triad.
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