A nurse is providing education to a client who is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this test?
“This test can detect neural tube defects.”.
“This test can detect genetic disorders.”.
“This test can detect chromosomal abnormalities.”.
“This test can detect Rh sensitization.”.
The Correct Answer is B
This test can detect genetic disorders.
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal test that involves taking a sample of tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal abnormalities and certain other genetic problems.
The placenta is a structure in the uterus that provides blood and nutrients from the mother to the fetus.
Choice A is wrong because CVS does not provide information on neural tube defects, such as spina bifida.
For this reason, women who undergo CVS also need a follow-up blood test between 16 to 18 weeks of their pregnancy to screen for neural tube defects.
Choice C is wrong because CVS can detect chromosomal abnormalities, but not all chromosomal abnormalities are genetic disorders.
For example, Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, but it is not inherited from the parents.
Choice D is wrong because CVS cannot detect Rh sensitization, which is a condition where the mother’s immune system produces antibodies against the fetus’s blood type.
Rh sensitization can be detected by a blood test that measures the level of antibodies in the mother’s blood.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The baby’s heart beat is audible by a Doppler stethoscope at 12 weeks of pregnancy.
This is a device that uses sound waves to create an image of the baby’s heart and measure its rate and rhythm.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B is wrong because the baby’s sex can not be determined by ultrasound at 8 weeks of pregnancy.
The external genitalia are not fully developed until around 14 to 16 weeks of pregnancy.
Even then, the accuracy of ultrasound depends on factors such as the position of the baby, the quality of the equipment, and the skill of the sonographer.
Choice C is wrong because the baby’s lungs are not fully mature by 24 weeks of pregnancy.
The lungs are one of the last organs to develop in the fetus and they continue to grow and mature until near term.
The production of surfactant, a substance that helps the lungs expand and prevent collapse, begins around 24 weeks but is not sufficient until around 34 to 36 weeks.
Choice D is wrong because the baby’s eyes do not open and close by 16 weeks of pregnancy.
The eyelids are fused together until around 26 to 28 weeks of pregnancy, when they start to open and close periodically.
The baby can also respond to light and dark stimuli around this time.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because migraine headaches with aura are a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they increase the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular complications.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B: A 32-year-old client who has endometriosis.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can actually help reduce the symptoms of endometriosis by suppressing ovulation and reducing menstrual bleeding.
Choice C: A 28-year-old client who has polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help regulate the menstrual cycle and lower the levels of androgens (male hormones) that cause acne, hirsutism (excess hair growth), and other problems in women with PCOS.
Choice D: A 22-year-old client who has irregular menstrual cycles.
This is not a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives, as they can help normalize the menstrual cycle and prevent unintended pregnancy.
Normal ranges for oral contraceptive doses are:
Estrogen: 10 to 35 mcg of ethinyl estradiol or estradiol valerate
Progestin: varies depending on the type and brand of oral contraceptive
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