A nurse is educating a pregnant client about the Non-Stress Test (NST).
Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the test?
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors.".
"A nonreactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.".
. "NST requires placing two belts with sensors on my abdomen: one to monitor the fetal heart rate and one to monitor the uterine contractions.".
"A reactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.".
The Correct Answer is A
"NST is performed after 28 weeks of gestation or earlier if there are risk factors."12 This statement indicates that the client understands when and why an NST is done.
Choice B is wrong because it describes a reactive NST, not a nonreactive one.
A reactive NST means that the fetal heart rate increases by at least 15 beats per minute for at least 15 seconds twice or more in a 20-minute period.2
Choice C is wrong because it confuses NST with contraction stress test (CST), which requires monitoring uterine contractions.
NST does not involve contractions.2
Choice D is wrong because it describes possible causes of a nonreactive NST, not a reactive one.
A nonreactive NST may indicate fetal hypoxia, distress, sleep, medication effect, or neurological abnormality.2
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This means that the baby’s heart rate did not slow down after the contractions induced by oxytocin, which is a sign of normal fetal well-being.
A negative CST is normal and desirable.
Choice A is wrong because no contractions were induced during the test.
This means that the test was inconclusive and could not assess the baby’s response to stress.
Choice B is wrong because late decelerations of the FHR were observed with at least 50% of contractions.
This means that the baby’s heart rate slowed down and stayed slow after the contractions, which is a sign of fetal distress and hypoxia.
A positive CST is abnormal and concerning.
Choice D is wrong because the client experienced mild uterine cramping during the test.
This is not a relevant factor for interpreting the CST results, which depend on the FHR patterns.
Uterine cramping can be a side effect of oxytocin administration or nipple stimulation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A is wrong because it describes a transabdominal CVS procedure, which involves a needle instead of a catheter.
Choice C is wrong because it describes a procedure that is not used for CVS.A needle inserted through the cervix could damage the fetal membranes or cause bleeding.
Choice D is wrong because it describes a procedure that is not possible.A catheter cannot be inserted through the abdomen and uterus into the placenta.
Normal ranges for CVS are not applicable as it is a diagnostic test, not a screening test.
It provides a definitive result of whether the fetus has a chromosomal abnormality or a genetic disorder.CVS is usually done between 10 and 13+6 weeks of pregnancy.
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