A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who reports that they cannot afford their prescribed medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"I can arrange for a social worker to talk with you before you leave."
"Contact your pharmacy to inquire about a different medication."
"I can contact the occupational therapist to schedule a home visit."
"You should ask your provider to prescribe a cheaper medication."
The Correct Answer is A
A) This response offers a solution by involving a social worker who can assist the client in exploring financial assistance programs or alternative medication options.
B) While contacting the pharmacy may be helpful, it does not guarantee a solution to the client's financial constraints.
C) Involving the occupational therapist for a home visit is not directly related to addressing the client's inability to afford medication.
D) Instructing the client to ask their provider to prescribe a cheaper medication puts the responsibility solely on the client and may not address the underlying issue effectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","F"]
Explanation
A) DKA can lead to several complications, including hypotension, which is indicated by the client's low blood pressure reading of 96/65 mm Hg.
B) Respiratory alkalosis is less likely because DKA typically leads to metabolic acidosis, as indicated by the low pH of 7.30.
C) DKA does not result in septic shock but it instead causes hypovolemic shock in case of severe dehydration.
D) Cardiac arrhythmias can occur due to the electrolyte imbalances, as evidenced by the high potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L.
E) Renal failure is another potential complication, suggested by the elevated creatinine level of 1.7 mg/dL. The client's hyperglycemia and dehydration can stress the kidneys, potentially leading to acute kidney injury or renal failure.
F) Cerebral edema is a less common but severe complication of DKA, especially in children and adolescents, and should be considered given the client's symptoms of frequent urination and extreme thirst. It results from over-hydration of the client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increased libido is unlikely due to the loss of testosterone production.
B. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to the surgical procedure.
C. Bilateral orchiectomy, the surgical removal of both testicles, results in a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, which can lead to symptoms such as hot flashes, similar to those experienced during menopause.
D. Increased muscle mass is associated with testosterone production, which would decrease following bilateral orchiectomy.
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