A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department.
Click to highlight the findings that indicate that the client's condition is improving. To deselect a finding, click on the finding again.
1400:
Client admitted to the medical-surgical unit at 1200 today. Alert and orientated x4, heart and lung sounds clear. Client urinating 100 mL/hour.
Client is tolerating soft diet and oral fluids. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all 4 quadrants.
Bilateral pedal pulses 2+, Blood glucose 310 mg/dl. (74 to 106 mg/dL) 1400:
Temperature 36.8° C (98.2° F)
Pulse rate 84/min Respiratory rate 16/min
Blood pressure 106/76 mm Hg Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
Alert and orientated x4
Heart and lung sounds clear
Client urinating 100 mL/hour
Client is tolerating soft diet and oral fluids
Bilateral pedal pulses 2+
Temperature 36.8° C (98.2° F)
Pulse rate 84/min
Respiratory rate 16/min
Blood pressure 106/76 mm Hg
Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F","G","H","I","J"]
The client's condition shows signs of improvement as indicated by several findings. The blood glucose level has decreased from 468 mg/dL to 310 mg/dL, which, although still above the normal range, is a significant improvement. The pulse rate has normalized from 110/min to 84/min, and the blood pressure has improved from 96/65 mm Hg to 106/76 mm Hg, indicating better cardiovascular stability. The
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"B"},"G":{"answers":"C"}}
Explanation
A) Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can help reduce heart rate and blood pressure, which is beneficial in cases of chest pain and irregular tachycardia.
B) Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is anticipated because the client's oxygen saturation is below normal, indicating they may benefit from supplemental oxygen.
C) Drawing electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct is anticipated as it is important to monitor these levels due to the client's symptoms and history of hypertension and diabetes.
D) Morphine is anticipated because the client reports pain, and morphine can provide pain relief and reduce the workload on the heart.
E) Nitroglycerin is a standard treatment for chest pain due to its vasodilating effects, which can improve blood flow to the heart.
F) Obtaining daily weight is nonessential at this moment because it does not directly address the acute symptoms the client is experiencing.
G) Atropine is contraindicated as the client's heart rate is tachycardic, not bradycardic, and atropine is used to increase heart rate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Increased libido is unlikely due to the loss of testosterone production.
B. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to the surgical procedure.
C. Bilateral orchiectomy, the surgical removal of both testicles, results in a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, which can lead to symptoms such as hot flashes, similar to those experienced during menopause.
D. Increased muscle mass is associated with testosterone production, which would decrease following bilateral orchiectomy.
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