A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has primary syphilis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge plan?

"You will need to take an antiviral medication for 6 months."

"You will need cryotherapy for 1 to 2 weeks,"

"You will need three follow-up blood tests within a 24-month period."

"You will need to be monitored for 15 minutes after receiving each medication dose."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Syphilis is a bacterial infection, so antiviral medication is not appropriate.

Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as penicillin.

B.   Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for primary syphilis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment.

C.   This is in line with the treatment guidelines for syphilis, which involve antibiotic therapy and follow-up testing to ensure the infection is fully resolved. The tests are done at 3, 6, and 12 months after completion of treatment.
D.   Monitoring after medication doses may be necessary for certain medications but is not specifically indicated for primary syphilis.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While pain assessment is important, ensuring airway patency takes priority over pain assessment in a client who has received sedation.
B. Monitoring temperature is important but is not the priority in this scenario.

C. Warmth of extremities is not as critical as assessing the airway.

D. Gag reflex assessment is essential to evaluate the client's ability to protect their airway and prevent aspiration, especially after receiving sedation.

A. Increased libido B. Hypoglycemia C. Hot flashes D. Increased muscle mass

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Increased libido is unlikely due to the loss of testosterone production.

B. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to the surgical procedure.

C. Bilateral orchiectomy, the surgical removal of both testicles, results in a sudden decrease in testosterone levels, which can lead to symptoms such as hot flashes, similar to those experienced during menopause.
D. Increased muscle mass is associated with testosterone production, which would decrease following bilateral orchiectomy.

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A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has primary syphilis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge plan?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an endoscopy with moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following assessment findings is the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bilateral orchiectomy. The nurse should instruct the client to expect which of the following symptoms?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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