A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has primary syphilis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge plan?
"You will need to take an antiviral medication for 6 months."
"You will need cryotherapy for 1 to 2 weeks,"
"You will need three follow-up blood tests within a 24-month period."
"You will need to be monitored for 15 minutes after receiving each medication dose."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Syphilis is a bacterial infection, so antiviral medication is not appropriate.
Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as penicillin.
B. Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for primary syphilis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment.
C. This is in line with the treatment guidelines for syphilis, which involve antibiotic therapy and follow-up testing to ensure the infection is fully resolved. The tests are done at 3, 6, and 12 months after completion of treatment.
D. Monitoring after medication doses may be necessary for certain medications but is not specifically indicated for primary syphilis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","F"]
Explanation
A) DKA can lead to several complications, including hypotension, which is indicated by the client's low blood pressure reading of 96/65 mm Hg.
B) Respiratory alkalosis is less likely because DKA typically leads to metabolic acidosis, as indicated by the low pH of 7.30.
C) DKA does not result in septic shock but it instead causes hypovolemic shock in case of severe dehydration.
D) Cardiac arrhythmias can occur due to the electrolyte imbalances, as evidenced by the high potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L.
E) Renal failure is another potential complication, suggested by the elevated creatinine level of 1.7 mg/dL. The client's hyperglycemia and dehydration can stress the kidneys, potentially leading to acute kidney injury or renal failure.
F) Cerebral edema is a less common but severe complication of DKA, especially in children and adolescents, and should be considered given the client's symptoms of frequent urination and extreme thirst. It results from over-hydration of the client.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) This is not a standard intervention for bladder spasms post-TURP.
B) Securing the urinary catheter to the abdomen does not address the immediate issue of potential catheter blockage.
C) Performing an intermittent bladder irrigation using sodium chloride is appropriate in this case. This is because bladder spasms and a scant amount of fluid in the urinary drainage bag may indicate a blockage in the catheter. Intermittent bladder irrigation can help to remove any clots or debris that may be causing the blockage.
D) Encouraging the client to urinate is not applicable as the client cannot urinate normally due to the surgery.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.