A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has primary syphilis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge plan?
"You will need to take an antiviral medication for 6 months."
"You will need cryotherapy for 1 to 2 weeks,"
"You will need three follow-up blood tests within a 24-month period."
"You will need to be monitored for 15 minutes after receiving each medication dose."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Syphilis is a bacterial infection, so antiviral medication is not appropriate.
Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as penicillin.
B. Cryotherapy is not a standard treatment for primary syphilis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment.
C. This is in line with the treatment guidelines for syphilis, which involve antibiotic therapy and follow-up testing to ensure the infection is fully resolved. The tests are done at 3, 6, and 12 months after completion of treatment.
D. Monitoring after medication doses may be necessary for certain medications but is not specifically indicated for primary syphilis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E","G"]
Explanation
A) The client’s blood glucose in this scenario is within the normal range.
B) The bowel sounds in this scenario are present in all the 4 quadrants which is normal.
C) The client's blood pressure is elevated at 164/80 mm Hg. Hypertension can exacerbate cardiac ischemia and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, monitoring and potential management of blood pressure are warranted.
D) The client's blood pressure is elevated at 164/80 mm Hg. Hypertension can exacerbate cardiac ischemia and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, monitoring and potential management of blood pressure are warranted.
E) The client's blood pressure is elevated at 164/80 mm Hg. Hypertension can exacerbate cardiac ischemia and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, monitoring and potential management of blood pressure are warranted.
F) The lungs are clear on auscultation of all the lobes which is normal.
G) The client's blood pressure is elevated at 164/80 mm Hg. Hypertension can exacerbate cardiac ischemia and increase the risk of complications. Therefore, monitoring and potential management of blood pressure are warranted.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Distended jugular veins are associated with fluid overload, not dehydration.
B) Pitting, dependent edema is also associated with fluid overload, not dehydration.
C) Decreased blood pressure is a common sign of dehydration due to decreased blood volume.
D) Increased blood pressure is not typically associated with dehydration and may suggest other conditions such as hypertension or fluid overload.
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