A nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client who has hypertension that has resulted in a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the following information should the nurse discuss with the client regarding blood pressure (BP) management?

The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg.

The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg.

The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg.

The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg.

Note the time the seizure started

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg.

This is an appropriate recommendation. The American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines recommend maintaining systolic BP below 130 mm Hg to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events in individuals with a history of stroke or TIA.

B. The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg.

This is slightly above the recommended range. While systolic BP below 135 mm Hg is generally recommended for individuals with a history of stroke or TIA, a range of 130-135 mm Hg may still be acceptable based on individual patient factors and risk assessments.

C. The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg.

This is above the recommended range. Systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg may be considered elevated and should be managed to lower levels to reduce the risk of recurrent TIA or stroke.

D. The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg.

This is above the recommended range. Systolic BP above 140 mm Hg is generally considered elevated and should be managed to lower levels to reduce the risk of recurrent TIA or stroke.

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Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

To calculate the dose of amantadine for a client with parkinsonism, the nurse needs to use the following formula:

Dose (mL) = Ordered dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL).

In this case, the ordered dose is 150 mg and the concentration is 50 mg/5 mL. Therefore, the dose in mL is:

Dose (mL) = 150 mg / (50 mg/5 mL)

Dose (mL) = 150 mg x (5 mL/50 mg)

Dose (mL) = 15 mL

The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 15 mL. The nurse should administer 15 mL of amantadine oral solution to the client.

A. "It is too early to tell. When the spinal shock subsides, we will know more." B. "You should talk to your physician about things of that nature." C. "No. Significant recovery of function should occur in a few days." D. "Yes. In all likelihood, the paralysis is probably permanent."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "It is too early to tell. When the spinal shock subsides, we will know more."

This response is appropriate. Spinal shock can initially obscure the extent of neurological injury, and it may take time for the full extent of the injury to become apparent. By acknowledging this and suggesting that more information will be available once spinal shock subsides, the nurse provides a realistic perspective without prematurely predicting the outcome.

B. "You should talk to your physician about things of that nature."

This response may come across as dismissive or evasive. While it is true that the physician ultimately determines the patient's prognosis, the family may be seeking reassurance and guidance from the nurse as well.

C. "No. Significant recovery of function should occur in a few days."

This response is overly optimistic and potentially misleading. While some improvement may occur in the days following a spinal cord injury, significant recovery of function within a few days is unlikely, especially in cases of flaccid paralysis of all extremities.

D. "Yes. In all likelihood, the paralysis is probably permanent."

This response is overly pessimistic and lacks sensitivity. It may unnecessarily distress the family and extinguish hope for the patient's recovery.

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A nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client who has hypertension that has resulted in a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the following information should the nurse discuss with the client regarding blood pressure (BP) management?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

On admission to the emergency department, a patient with a C5 compression fracture can move only his head and has flaccid paralysis of all extremities. The distraught family asks if the paralysis is permanent. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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