Which neurologic finding would be considered abnormal in an 88-year-old patient?
Dizziness and problems with balance
Slow papillary response to light
Jerky eye movements
Absence of the Achilles tendon jerk
The Correct Answer is D
A. Dizziness and problems with balance
While dizziness and problems with balance can occur more frequently in older adults due to age-related changes in the vestibular system and other factors, persistent or severe dizziness or balance issues should be evaluated further as they could indicate underlying neurological or medical conditions.
B. Slow papillary response to light
This finding may be considered abnormal, especially if it represents a significant change from the individual's baseline. While age-related changes in pupil function can occur, a slow or sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate dysfunction of the oculomotor nerve or other neurological issues and should be investigated further.
C. Jerky eye movements
Jerky eye movements, such as nystagmus, can be abnormal and may indicate dysfunction of the vestibular system or other neurological conditions. While some degree of nystagmus can occur with age, persistent or severe jerky eye movements should be evaluated further.
D. Absence of the Achilles tendon jerk
This finding may also be considered abnormal. The Achilles tendon reflex, tested using the deep tendon reflex (DTR) examination, can diminish with age but should not be completely absent in the absence of specific medical conditions affecting the reflex arc or spinal cord function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["15"]
Explanation
To calculate the dose of amantadine for a client with parkinsonism, the nurse needs to use the following formula:
Dose (mL) = Ordered dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL).
In this case, the ordered dose is 150 mg and the concentration is 50 mg/5 mL. Therefore, the dose in mL is:
Dose (mL) = 150 mg / (50 mg/5 mL)
Dose (mL) = 150 mg x (5 mL/50 mg)
Dose (mL) = 15 mL
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 15 mL. The nurse should administer 15 mL of amantadine oral solution to the client.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decreased pedal pulses:
Decreased pedal pulses are not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Instead, they may indicate peripheral vascular disease or reduced perfusion to the lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses is important for assessing circulation but is not directly related to intracranial pressure changes.
B. Hypertension:
Hypertension can be a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. The body may respond to elevated intracranial pressure by increasing blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure. However, hypertension alone is not specific to increased ICP and can have various causes.
C. Peripheral edema:
Peripheral edema is not a typical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. It may occur in conditions such as heart failure or renal dysfunction but is not directly related to intracranial pressure changes following a craniotomy.
D. Diarrhea:
Diarrhea is not a common manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. Increased ICP is more likely to manifest with symptoms such as headache, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.
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