A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select a site on the client’s dominant arm.
Apply a tourniquet below the venipuncture site.
Elevate the client’s arm prior to insertion.
Choose a vein that is palpable and straight.
The Correct Answer is D
This will facilitate the insertion of the catheter and reduce the risk of complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, or hematoma. A straight vein will also allow the catheter to be inserted up to the hub, which reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter.
Choice A is wrong because selecting a site on the client’s dominant arm can interfere with the client’s mobility and increase the risk of dislodging the catheter. The nurse should choose a site on the client’s non-dominant arm, preferably on the hand or forearm.
Choice B is wrong because applying a tourniquet below the venipuncture site will impede blood flow and make it harder to locate a suitable vein. The nurse should apply a tourniquet above the venipuncture site, about 10 to 15 cm from the insertion site.
Choice C is wrong because elevating the client’s arm prior to insertion will decrease venous filling and make it harder to palpate a vein. The nurse should lower the client’s arm below the level of the heart to increase venous distension.
Normal ranges for IV catheter size and insertion angle depend on several factors, such as the type and duration of therapy, the condition and size of the vein, and the age and preference of the client.
In general, smaller gauge catheters (20 to 24) are preferred for peripheral IV therapy, and larger gauge catheters (14 to 18) are used for rapid fluid administration or blood transfusion. The insertion angle can vary from 10 to 30 degrees, depending on the depth and location of the vein.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement shows respect for the client’s interest in alternative therapies and offers guidance on how to choose a reliable and qualified provider. Alternative therapies can provide some benefits for people with rheumatoid arthritis, such as reducing pain, inflammation, and stiffness, but they should be used as a complement to conventional treatments and not as a substitute.
Choice B is wrong because it implies that the client has no role in deciding their own treatment plan and that alternative therapies are not worth considering.
This may discourage the client from sharing their preferences and concerns with the provider.
Choice C is wrong because it suggests that online support groups are a reliable source of information about alternative remedies, which may not be true.
Online sources may contain inaccurate, misleading, or harmful information that could jeopardize the client’s health and safety.
Choice D is wrong because it encourages the client to try any therapy that fits their personal belief system, without considering the evidence, effectiveness, or potential risks of such therapies. Some alternative therapies may interact with medications, cause side effects, or worsen the condition.
Normal ranges for rheumatoid arthritis are not applicable to this question, as it is not asking about laboratory values or disease activity measures. However, some common tests used to diagnose and monitor rheumatoid arthritis include erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C- reactive protein (CRP), rheumatoid factor (RF), anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, and joint ultrasound or X-ray.
The normal ranges for these tests may vary depending on the laboratory and the method used.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
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