A nurse is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Select a site on the client’s dominant arm.
Apply a tourniquet below the venipuncture site.
Elevate the client’s arm prior to insertion.
Choose a vein that is palpable and straight.
The Correct Answer is D
This will facilitate the insertion of the catheter and reduce the risk of complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, or hematoma. A straight vein will also allow the catheter to be inserted up to the hub, which reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter.
Choice A is wrong because selecting a site on the client’s dominant arm can interfere with the client’s mobility and increase the risk of dislodging the catheter. The nurse should choose a site on the client’s non-dominant arm, preferably on the hand or forearm.
Choice B is wrong because applying a tourniquet below the venipuncture site will impede blood flow and make it harder to locate a suitable vein. The nurse should apply a tourniquet above the venipuncture site, about 10 to 15 cm from the insertion site.
Choice C is wrong because elevating the client’s arm prior to insertion will decrease venous filling and make it harder to palpate a vein. The nurse should lower the client’s arm below the level of the heart to increase venous distension.
Normal ranges for IV catheter size and insertion angle depend on several factors, such as the type and duration of therapy, the condition and size of the vein, and the age and preference of the client.
In general, smaller gauge catheters (20 to 24) are preferred for peripheral IV therapy, and larger gauge catheters (14 to 18) are used for rapid fluid administration or blood transfusion. The insertion angle can vary from 10 to 30 degrees, depending on the depth and location of the vein.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A.
Choice A rationale:
Documenting the client’s condition every 15 minutes is a crucial part of using restraints. Regular documentation helps ensure the safety and well-being of the client, as it allows for continuous monitoring and timely intervention if necessary.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting a PRN (as needed) restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive is not a recommended practice. Restraints should only be used as a last resort and must be based on a thorough assessment of the client’s condition, not solely on their behavior.
Choice C rationale:
Attaching the restraint to the bed’s side rails is not recommended. This can increase the risk of injury to the client. Restraints should be attached to a part of the bed frame that moves with the client, such as the head or footboard.
Choice D rationale:
While it’s important to regularly check and adjust restraints for comfort and safety, there’s no specific guideline that restraints should be removed every 4 hours. The frequency of removal and repositioning will depend on the individual client’s condition and needs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
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