A nurse is planning to teach a client about taking prednisone.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Increase dietary calcium.
Monitor for weight loss.
Take on an empty stomach.
Schedule dosage at bedtime.
The Correct Answer is A
Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication that can cause bone loss (osteoporosis) by reducing the absorption of calcium and increasing the excretion of calcium in the urine. Therefore, patients taking prednisone should increase their intake of calcium-rich foods or supplements to prevent bone loss and fractures.
Choice B is wrong because prednisone can cause weight gain, not weight loss, by increasing appetite and fluid retention. Patients taking prednisone should monitor their weight and limit their salt and calorie intake.
Choice C is wrong because prednisone should not be taken on an empty stomach, as it can cause stomach irritation, ulcers, or bleeding. Patients taking prednisone should take it with food or milk to protect their stomachs.
Choice D is wrong because prednisone should not be scheduled at bedtime, as it can cause insomnia or difficulty sleeping. Patients taking prednisone should take it in the morning or early afternoon to avoid disrupting their sleep cycle.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to
infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.
Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D: A client who is taking warfarin and has an INR of 1.8.
Choice A rationale:
A Mantoux test with an induration after 48 hours can be a normal reaction, especially if the induration is within the expected size range for a positive result, depending on the individual’s risk factors and history. It does not necessarily require follow-up care unless the induration is significantly large or there are other concerning symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not typically require follow-up care for the sodium phosphate intake itself. Sodium phosphate is commonly used as a bowel prep medication to clear the intestines prior to the procedure.
Choice C rationale:
A potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L), so a client taking bumetanide with this potassium level would not typically require follow-up care for the potassium level alone.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care because the therapeutic range for warfarin is typically between 2.0 and 3.0 for most indications. An INR of 1.8 may indicate that the blood is not “thin” enough, increasing the risk of thrombotic events, and the warfarin dose may need adjustment.
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