A nurse is positioning a client for a cesarean birth. To prevent a compromise in placental blood flow during the intraoperative period, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Insert a pillow under the client’s knees.
Position the client in reverse Trendelenburg.
Assist the client in the lithotomy position.
Place a wedge under one of the client’s hips.
The Correct Answer is D
This is because placing a wedge under one of the hips can help prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, which can compromise placental blood flow and cause fetal hypoxia. Placing a wedge under the hip can also help reduce the risk of maternal hypotension, which can also affect fetal oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because inserting a pillow under the client’s knees can increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice B is wrong because positioning the client in reverse Trendelenburg can increase the risk of maternal aspiration, which is another potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice C is wrong because assisting the client into the lithotomy position can also compress the inferior vena cava and reduce placental blood flow. The lithotomy position is also not necessary for cesarean birth, as the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen and uterus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because shuffling gait is a common manifestation of pseudo-parkinsonism, which is a condition that mimics the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease due to the use of certain medications that block dopamine receptors, such as haloperidol. Pseudoparkinsonism can cause slowed movements, muscle stiffness, tremor, and postural instability.
Choice A. Nonreactive pupils are wrong because this is not a typical feature of pseudoparkinsonism or Parkinson’s disease.
Nonreactive pupils can be caused by other conditions, such as brain injury, drugs, or eye diseases.
Choice B. Serpentine limb movement is wrong because this is a characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, another drug-induced movement disorder that can result from the long-term use of dopamine receptor-blocking agents. Tardive dyskinesia causes involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and limbs that are often writhing or twisting.
Choice C. Smacking lips is wrong because this is also a sign of tardive dyskinesia, not pseudo-parkinsonism. Smacking lips is one of the orofacial movements that can occur in tardive dyskinesia due to abnormal muscle contractions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved.
Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
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