A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash. The client’s Glasgow coma scale rating is 15.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
The client withdraws from pain.
The client is unable to obey commands.
The client opens eyes to sound.
The client is oriented times three.
The Correct Answer is D
This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.
Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.
This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.
Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.
This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.
Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.
This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.
The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.
It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E"]
Explanation
Preterm pre-labor rupture of membranes (PROM) is the spontaneous rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor in a pregnancy less than 37 weeks gestation. It can lead to
infection, cord prolapse, placental abruption, and preterm delivery. The client has risk factors for PROM such as a history of preterm birth and a current infection indicated by fever.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. The client has signs of sepsis such as fever, tachycardia, and possible organ dysfunction. The client may have a urinary tract infection, a common cause of sepsis in pregnancy, or an intrauterine infection due to PROM or other factors.
Preeclampsia is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have high blood pressure or proteinuria, which are the defining features of preeclampsia. Seizures are not a likely complication for this client because she does not have epilepsy or eclampsia, which are the leading causes of seizures in pregnancy. Placenta previa is not a likely complication for this client because she does not have painless vaginal bleeding, which is the hallmark symptom of placenta previa.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A non-tender, protruding abdomen is a normal finding for a 2- year-old toddler. This is due to the immature development of the abdominal muscles and the relatively large size of the liver and kidneys in relation to the rest of the body.
Choice B is wrong because the head circumference should be equal to or less than the chest circumference by age 2. A head circumference that exceeds the chest circumference could indicate hydrocephalus or other neurological problems.
Choice C is wrong because the fontanels, or soft spots on the skull, should be closed by the age of 18 months. Palpable fontanels could indicate dehydration, malnutrition, or congenital disorders.
Choice D is wrong because the natural loss of deciduous teeth, or baby teeth, usually begins around age 6. Premature loss of teeth could indicate dental caries, trauma, or endocrine disorders.
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