A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash. The client’s Glasgow coma scale rating is 15.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
The client withdraws from pain.
The client is unable to obey commands.
The client opens eyes to sound.
The client is oriented times three.
The Correct Answer is D
This means that the client knows who they are, where they are, and what time it is. This indicates a high level of consciousness and a normal Glasgow coma scale (GCS) rating of 15.
Choice A is wrong because the client withdraws from pain.
This means that the client reacts to a painful stimulus by pulling away from it. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 4 for motor response.
Choice B is wrong because the client is unable to obey commands.
This means that the client does not follow simple instructions such as moving a limb or opening their eyes. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 1 or 2 for motor response.
Choice C is wrong because the client opens eyes to sound.
This means that the client does not open their eyes spontaneously, but only when they hear a loud noise. This indicates a lower level of consciousness and a GCS rating of 3 for eye opening.
The Glasgow coma scale is a clinical tool used to assess the level of consciousness of a person after a brain injury.
It consists of three tests: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
Each test has a score range from 1 to 6, with higher scores indicating higher levels of consciousness. The total score ranges from 3 to 15, with lower scores indicating higher risk of death.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the priority question for the nurse to ask the client because it assesses the client’s risk for suicide, which is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of conduct disorder. The nurse should use a direct and nonjudgmental approach when asking about suicidal ideation and plan.
Choice A is wrong because it is not the most urgent question to ask the client.
While it is important to assess the client’s social relationships and possible peer rejection, this can be done after addressing the client’s safety and mental status.
Choice B is wrong because it is not relevant to the client’s current condition and might make the client feel defensive or stigmatized.
The nurse should avoid asking questions that imply blame or judgment and focus on the client’s strengths and coping skills.
Choice D is wrong because it is not appropriate for the nurse to ask the client in an emergency department setting.
This question might imply that the client is responsible for their conduct disorder, which is a complex and multifactorial mental health condition. The nurse should collaborate with the client and their family to develop a behavior management plan that involves positive reinforcement, limit setting, and consistent consequences.
Normal ranges: According to the DSM-5, conduct disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the rights of others or societal norms.
The symptoms of conduct disorder include aggression, deceitfulness, destruction of property, serious rule violations, and lack of remorse.
Conduct disorder can cause significant impairment in social, academic, or occupational functioning. The prevalence of conduct disorder is estimated to be 4% among children and adolescents.
The risk factors for conduct disorder include genetic factors, neurobiological factors, environmental factors, and psychological factors.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B
Choice A rationale: Inserting the catheter without applying suction is correct technique. Suction should only be applied while withdrawing the catheter to prevent mucosal trauma and hypoxia. Initiating suction during insertion can damage tracheal lining and cause bradycardia due to vagal stimulation. Allowing clean insertion without suction reduces injury risk and supports effective secretion removal on withdrawal with controlled suction time.
Choice B rationale: Waiting 2 minutes between suction passes is too long and may delay secretion clearance, risking hypoxia and secretion buildup. Best practice is to wait about 30 seconds to 1 minute or until the client recovers baseline oxygen saturation and heart rate. Prolonged intervals may lead to atelectasis or respiratory distress in patients with poor reserve, especially if suctioning is incomplete or secretions are copious.
Choice C rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10–15 seconds per pass to reduce hypoxemia and bronchospasm risks. Applying suction for 15 seconds falls within the upper acceptable range, particularly if preoxygenation is done. Extended suction beyond this can decrease PaO₂ levels rapidly. Limiting the suction time ensures safer removal of secretions while minimizing trauma and preserving adequate oxygenation.
Choice D rationale: Encouraging the client to cough facilitates mobilization of secretions toward the upper airway, making suctioning more effective. Coughing also enhances airway clearance naturally and may reduce the number of required suction passes. It is a therapeutic action in tracheostomy care that supports pulmonary hygiene, helps prevent atelectasis, and can reduce the need for deep suctioning interventions.
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