A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is available in a glass ampule.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
The nurse should use a filter needle to withdraw the medication.
The nurse should break the neck of the ampule toward their body.
The nurse should use the same needle to draw up and inject the client.
The nurse should dispose of the ampule in the trash can.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because glass ampules can leave small shards of glass in the solution, which can be harmful if injected into the client. A filter needle has a small mesh that traps any glass particles and prevents them from entering the syringe.
Choice B is wrong because the nurse should break the neck of the ampule away from their body to avoid injury from the glass.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should use a different needle to inject the client after withdrawing the medication with a filter needle. This is to prevent contamination and reduce pain for the client.
Choice D is wrong because the nurse should dispose of the ampule in a sharps container, not in the trash can. This is to prevent injury and infection from the broken glass.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because abruptly stopping TPN can cause hypoglycemia, which is a low blood sugar level that can cause shakiness, diaphoresis, confusion, and seizures. Therefore, infusing dextrose 10% in water temporarily at the same rate as the TPN can prevent this adverse effect. Dextrose 10% in water is a hypertonic solution that contains 340 calories per liter and can maintain the client’s blood glucose level until the new TPN bag arrives.
Choice A is wrong because giving 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution would not provide enough calories or glucose to prevent hypoglycemia. Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes but no calories or glucose.
Choice B is wrong because temporarily discontinuing the infusion would cause hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening for the client.
Choice C is wrong because slowing the TPN infusion rate would also cause hypoglycemia, as the client would receive less calories and glucose than prescribed.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The nurse should recognize the client is experiencing preterm labor due to previous preterm birth.
Preterm labor is when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy. One of the risk factors for preterm labor is having a previous preterm delivery. The client’s history indicates that her last pregnancy resulted in a preterm spontaneous vaginal birth at 30 weeks gestation. The client’s current symptoms, such as lower back pain, pinkish vaginal discharge, uterine contractions and cervical dilation, also suggest that she is in preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should recognize that the client is experiencing preterm labor due to previous preterm birth.
BMI, blood type and blood pressure are not causes of preterm labor in this case. BMI may be associated with preterm labor if it is too high or too low, but the client’s BMI is within the normal range for pregnancy. Blood type may cause Rh incompatibility if the mother is Rh negative and the baby is Rh positive, but the client’s blood type is Rh positive. Blood pressure may cause preeclampsia if it is too high, but the client’s blood pressure is normal. Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain and fetal distress. The client does not have these signs.
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