A nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client who has dark skin.
Which of the following locations on the client’s body should the nurse observe to assess for cyanosis?
Area of trauma.
Sacrum.
Shoulders.
Palms of the hands.
The Correct Answer is D

Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to inadequate oxygenation of the blood. It is more difficult to detect in people who have dark skin, so the nurse should look for cyanosis in areas where the skin is thinner and the blood supply is richer, such as the palms of the hands, the lips, the gums, and around the eyes.
These areas are less affected by melanin, the pigment that gives skin its color.
Choice A is wrong because an area of trauma may have bruising or inflammation that can mask cyanosis.
Choice B is wrong because the sacrum is not a good site to assess for cyanosis in any skin tone, as it is prone to pressure ulcers and poor circulation.
Choice C is wrong because the shoulders are not a mucous membrane and may have more melanin than other areas of the body.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Maternal hypoglycemia.
Choice A rationale:
Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, causing a sustained low fetal heart rate. Hypoglycemia in the mother can affect the fetus by reducing the availability of glucose, which is essential for fetal metabolism and heart function.
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Choice B rationale:
Maternal fever is more commonly associated with fetal tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Fever in the mother can lead to an increased fetal heart rate, not a decreased one.
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Choice C rationale:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the fetal membranes and amniotic fluid, which can lead to fetal distress and tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
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Choice D rationale:
Fetal anemia can also cause bradycardia, but in this scenario, maternal hypoglycemia is a more immediate concern as it directly affects the fetal heart rate by impacting the fetal metabolic processes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. INR.
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver.
These factors are part of the extrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are measured by the prothrombin time (PT) and the international normalized ratio (INR).
The INR is a standardized way of reporting the PT that accounts for the variability of different reagents and instruments.
The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose accordingly.
The target INR range depends on the indication for warfarin, but it is usually between 2 and 3 for most conditions.
Choice B is wrong because fibrinogen level is not affected by warfarin.
Fibrinogen is a precursor of fibrin, which forms the final step of the coagulation cascade.
Fibrinogen level can be decreased in conditions such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), liver disease, or severe bleeding. Choice C is wrong because aPTT is not affected by warfarin.
aPTT measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation, which are mainly dependent on factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII.
These factors are not inhibited by warfarin.
aPTT is used to monitor the effect of heparin, a direct antithrombin agent that inhibits thrombin and factor Xa.
Choice D is wrong because platelet count is not affected by warfarin.
Platelets are cell fragments that adhere to damaged blood vessels and form aggregates to initiate hemostasis.
Platelet count can be decreased in conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), or bone marrow suppression.
Normal ranges:
- INR: 0.8-1.2
- Fibrinogen: 200-400 mg/dL
- aPTT: 25-35 seconds
- Platelet count: 150-450 x 10^9/L References:
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