A nurse is caring for a client who is in a coma and is scheduled for a surgical procedure.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Send the unsigned informed consent form to the facility’s risk manager.
Ensure that the client’s family supports the provider’s decision for surgery.
Determine if the procedure is medically necessary for the client.
Determine if the client’s health care surrogate is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure.
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The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. The nurse should determine if the client’s health care surrogate is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure. A health care surrogate is a person who is authorized to make health care decisions for a client who is unable to do so. The nurse has a legal and ethical responsibility to ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent for the surgery, which means that they have received adequate information about the procedure, its purpose, its risks, its benefits, and its alternatives.
Choice A is wrong because sending the unsigned informed consent form to the facility’s risk manager does not ensure that the client’s surrogate has given informed consent. The risk manager is not involved in the consent process and cannot authorize the surgery without the surrogate’s consent.
Choice B is wrong because ensuring that the client’s family supports the provider’s decision for surgery is not the same as obtaining informed consent from the surrogate.
The family may have different opinions or preferences than the surrogate, and the surrogate may not agree with the provider’s decision. The nurse should respect the surrogate’s autonomy and authority to make decisions for the client.
Choice C is wrong because determining if the procedure is medically necessary for the client is not the nurse’s role.
The provider is responsible for determining the medical necessity of the surgery and explaining it to the surrogate. The nurse should not question or interfere with the provider’s judgment unless there is evidence of negligence or malpractice.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Answer:D. Troponin T test
Rationale:
A. Creatine kinase (CK) test: While creatine kinase isoenzymes, including CK-MB, can be elevated following myocardial infarction (MI), they are not specific to cardiac muscle injury. CK is found in various tissues throughout the body, so elevated levels can also indicate damage to skeletal muscle or brain tissue, among other sources.
B. Creatine kinase-myocardial band (CK-MB) test: CK-MB is a cardiac-specific isoform of creatine kinase, and elevated levels can indicate myocardial injury, particularly in the context of an acute MI. However, troponin T is a more sensitive and specific marker for myocardial injury.
C. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test: Brain natriuretic peptide is primarily used in the diagnosis and management of heart failure. While elevated BNP levels can indicate heart muscle strain or stress, they are not specific markers for acute myocardial infarction or early injury to the cardiac muscle.
D. Troponin T test: This is the correct answer. Troponin T is a highly specific marker for cardiac muscle injury. Elevated troponin levels can be detected within hours of myocardial infarction and persist for several days, making it an essential tool in the diagnosis of acute coronary syndromes, including myocardial infarction. Troponin T is considered one of the gold standard biomarkers for detecting early injury to the cardiac muscle.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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