A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
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The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
This client should be assessed first because they are at risk of hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency that can cause seizures, coma, or death if not treated promptly.
The nurse should check the client’s blood glucose level again and provide additional carbohydrates or glucose if needed.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should verify the client’s consent, allergies, and vital signs before the procedure, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice B is wrong because a client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain is likely to have improved pain relief and does not need immediate assessment.
The nurse should monitor the client’s pain level, vital signs, and respiratory status periodically, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should change the IV bag when it is empty or nearly empty, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Normal blood glucose levels are between 70 to 100 mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L) when fasting, and less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) is considered hypoglycemia and requires immediate treatment. Orange juice is a source of simple carbohydrates that can raise blood glucose quickly, but it may not be enough to prevent hypoglycemia in some cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- . Answer and explanation.
The correct answer is choice C, first-degree atrioventricular block.
This is because the PR interval is longer than normal, which indicates a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles through the AV node. A normal PR interval is 0.12 to 0.2 seconds, or 3 to 5 small squares on the EKG strip.
In this case, the PR interval is 0.35 seconds, which is more than 5 small squares.
Choice A is wrong because atrial fibrillation is a type of arrhythmia where the atria beat irregularly and rapidly, producing chaotic and variable P waves and an irregular ventricular response.
There is no constant PR interval in atrial fibrillation.
Choice B is wrong because complete heart block is a type of arrhythmia where there is no conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles, resulting in independent and dissociated atrial and ventricular rhythms.
There are no consistent P waves or PR intervals in complete heart block.
Choice D is wrong because premature atrial complexes are extra beats that originate from the atria and interrupt the normal sinus rhythm.
They produce abnormal P waves that are different from the sinus P waves, and may have a shorter or longer PR interval depending on the timing of the impulse.
However, they do not cause a constant prolongation of the PR interval.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
The correct answer is choice A. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.
This client has a high risk of developing a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.
Tachypnea is a sign of respiratory distress and hypoxia, which can indicate a pulmonary embolism.
The nurse should assess this client first and notify the provider.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.8% is wellcontrolled and does not need urgent attention.
The normal range for HbA1c is 4% to 6%, and the goal for diabetic clients is less than 7%.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities is expected to have some degree of motor impairment due to the medication.
The nurse should monitor the client’s sensation, movement, and pain level, but this is not a priority over choice A. Choice D is wrong because a client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring is not in immediate danger.
Sinus arrhythmia is a normal variation of heart rhythm that occurs with breathing.
The nurse should observe the client’s vital signs and cardiac rhythm, but this is not a priority over choice A.
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