A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients.
Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
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The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
This client should be assessed first because they are at risk of hypoglycemia, which is a medical emergency that can cause seizures, coma, or death if not treated promptly.
The nurse should check the client’s blood glucose level again and provide additional carbohydrates or glucose if needed.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should verify the client’s consent, allergies, and vital signs before the procedure, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice B is wrong because a client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain is likely to have improved pain relief and does not need immediate assessment.
The nurse should monitor the client’s pain level, vital signs, and respiratory status periodically, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag is not in immediate danger and can be assessed later.
The nurse should change the IV bag when it is empty or nearly empty, but this is not a priority over a client with low blood glucose.
Normal blood glucose levels are between 70 to 100 mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L) when fasting, and less than 140 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L) two hours after eating. A blood glucose level below 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) is considered hypoglycemia and requires immediate treatment. Orange juice is a source of simple carbohydrates that can raise blood glucose quickly, but it may not be enough to prevent hypoglycemia in some cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, hematuria.
Hematuria is the presence of red blood cells in the urine, which can make it appear pink or cola-colored. Hematuria is a common sign of glomerulonephritis, which is inflammation of the tiny filters in the kidneys (glomeruli) that remove waste and excess fluid from the blood.
Hematuria occurs because the inflamed glomeruli allow some blood cells to leak into the urine.
Choice B, polyuria, is wrong because polyuria is the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. Polyuria is not a typical feature of acute glomerulonephritis, which may actually cause reduced urine output due to fluid retention and decreased kidney function.
Choice C, weight loss, is wrong because weight loss is not a common symptom of acute glomerulonephritis. On the contrary, weight gain may occur due to fluid retention and edema (swelling) in the face, hands, feet and abdomen.
Choice D, hypotension, is wrong because hypotension is low blood pressure. Hypotension is not usually associated with acute glomerulonephritis, which may cause high blood pressure (hypertension) due to fluid overload and impaired sodium excretion by the kidneys.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for adults.
Normal ranges for urine output are about 800 to 2000 mL per day for adults.
Normal ranges for protein in the urine are less than 150 mg per day for adults. Normal ranges for red blood cells in the urine are less than 3 per high-power field for men and less than 5 per high-power field for women.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
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