A nurse is caring for a client who reports xerostomia following radiation therapy to the mandible.
Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
Suggest rinsing his mouth with an alcohol-based mouth wash.
Instruct the client on the use of esophageal speech.
Offer the client saltine crackers between meals.
Provide humidification of the room air.
The Correct Answer is D
Provide humidification of the room air. This is because humidification can help moisten the oral mucosa and reduce the discomfort of xerostomia. Xerostomia is a condition of dry mouth caused by reduced or absent saliva flow, which can occur after radiation therapy to the head and neck area.
Choice A is wrong because rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-based mouth wash can irritate the oral tissues and worsen xerostomia. Alcohol can also dehydrate the mouth and reduce saliva production.
Choice B is wrong because esophageal speech is a method of voice restoration after laryngectomy, not a treatment for xerostomia.
Esophageal speech involves swallowing air into the esophagus and releasing it to create sound.
It has nothing to do with saliva flow or dry mouth.
Choice C is wrong because saltine crackers are dry and hard to swallow without adequate saliva.
They can also scratch the oral mucosa and cause pain or bleeding. Offering the client saltine crackers between meals can aggravate xerostomia and increase the risk of choking.
Normal ranges for saliva flow vary depending on the method of measurement, but generally, a stimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.7 mL/min or an unstimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.1 mL/min is considered indicative of xerostomia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Previous violent behavior. According to the web search results, this is the best predictor of future violence among the given risk factors.
Other risk factors include past history of aggression, poor impulse control, and violence. Comorbidity that leads to acts of violence (psychotic delusions, command hallucinations, violent angry reactions with cognitive disorders).
Choice A is wrong because a history of being in prison is not a direct cause of violence, but rather a possible consequence of it.
Choice C is wrong because male gender is not a sufficient factor to predict violence, as there are many other variables involved. Choice D is wrong because experiencing delusions is not necessarily associated with violence, unless they are of a paranoid or persecutory nature.
Normal ranges for violence risk assessment are not standardized, but some tools that can be used include the Historical Clinical Risk Management-20 (HCR-20), the Violence Risk Appraisal Guide (VRAG), and the Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R). These tools use different scales and criteria to evaluate the likelihood of violent behavior in individuals.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Completing an incident report is not the correct action. An incident report should be completed as part of the hospital's protocol to document the medication error and ensure appropriate follow-up and investigation.
Choice B reason:
Checking the client for indications of bleeding is the correct action to be taken. In this situation, the nurse's first priority should be to assess the client for indications of bleeding, as the client received a significantly higher dose of IV heparin than prescribed. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots, and an overdose can increase the risk of bleeding.
After administering the wrong dose of medication, the nurse's immediate concern is the client's safety and well-being. Checking for signs of bleeding, such as petechiae, ecchymosis, hematomas, bleeding gums, melena (black, tarry stools), haematuria (blood in urine), or any other unusual bleeding, is crucial.
Choice C reason:
Monitor the client's aPTT levels: This is not the correct action to be taken. Monitoring the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) levels is essential to assess the client's coagulation status and determine if the overdose of heparin has affected their clotting ability. The healthcare provider may adjust the heparin dosage based on the aPTT levels.
Choice D reason:
Notify the risk manager: This is not the correct action to be taken. The risk manager or appropriate supervisor should be informed about the medication error as soon as possible to initiate a thorough review of the incident and take necessary steps to prevent similar errors in the future.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.