A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer.
The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother.
Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
I can give you information about respite care if you are interested
You should consider taking a sleeping pill before bed each night
I am sure you’re doing a great job taking care of your mother
It is always difficult caring for someone who is terminally ill
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. “I can give you information about respite care if you are interested.” Respite care is a service that provides short-term inpatient care for terminally-ill patients at a professional care facility, such as a hospital, hospice inpatient care facility, or nursing home. It is meant to relieve caregiver stress and offer them rest and time away from caregiving duties. Respite care is covered by Medicare for up to five consecutive days and no more than one respite period in a single billing period.
The nurse should offer this option to the son who is experiencing sleep deprivation due to caring for his mother.
Choice B is wrong because it suggests that the son should rely on medication to cope with his situation, which may not be appropriate or effective.
Sleeping pills may have side effects or interactions with other drugs, and they do not address the underlying cause of the son’s stress and fatigue.
Choice C is wrong because it does not acknowledge the son’s need for support or assistance.
It may sound like an empty compliment or a dismissal of the son’s concerns.
The nurse should express empathy and compassion, but also provide information and resources that can help the son.
Choice D is wrong because it does not offer any solution or guidance to the son.
It may also sound like a cliché or a generalization that does not reflect the son’s unique experience.
The nurse should avoid making assumptions or judgments about the son’s feelings or situation, and instead focus on his needs and preferences.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B. Applying an orthotic to the client’s foot.
An orthotic is a device that supports or corrects the function of a body part.
In this case, an orthotic can help prevent foot drop, which is a common contracture deformity in immobile patients.
Foot drop occurs when the muscles that lift the foot become weak or paralyzed, causing the foot to hang down at the ankle. An orthotic can keep the foot in a neutral position and prevent shortening of the calf muscles and Achilles tendon.
Choice A is wrong because a trochanter wedge is used to prevent external rotation of the hip, not contracture. A trochanter wedge is a triangular-shaped pillow that is placed between the legs to keep them parallel and aligned.
Choice C is wrong because a towel roll under the neck is used to maintain proper cervical alignment, not contracture. A towel roll can prevent hyperextension of the neck and support the natural curve of the spine.
Choice D is wrong because a pillow under the knees can actually cause contracture of the knee joint by keeping it in a flexed position. A pillow under the knees can also reduce blood flow to the lower extremities and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis.
Contracture is a permanent tightening of the muscles, tendons, skin, and surrounding tissues that causes the joints to shorten and stiffen.
Contracture can limit the range of motion and function of the affected body part. Contracture can be caused by inactivity, scarring, or diseases that affect the muscles or nerves. Prevention of contractures requires early diagnosis and initiation of physical medicine approaches such as passive range of motion exercises and splinting before contractures are present or while contractures are mild.
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