A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nausea.

Polyhydramnios.

Uterine tenderness.

Spotting.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.

This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.

Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.

Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.

Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.

Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.

Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.

This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

This is because bleeding after a cardiac catheterization is a possible complication that can occur when a catheter is inserted into an artery in the groin or arm to examine the heart. Bleeding can drip or spurt from the puncture site, or form a lump under the skin called a hematoma. Applying continuous pressure above the site can help stop the bleeding and prevent hematoma formation.
Choice A is wrong because applying intermittent pressure 2.5 cm (1 in) above the percutaneous skin site may not be enough to control the bleeding and may increase the risk of hematoma.
Choice B is wrong because applying intermittent pressure 2.5 cm (1 in) below the percutaneous skin site may not be effective and may cause more damage to the artery.
Choice C is wrong because applying continuous pressure 2.5 cm (1 in) below the percutaneous skin site may also be ineffective and harmful to the artery.

A. Insert a pillow under the client’s knees. B. Position the client in reverse Trendelenburg. C. Assist the client in the lithotomy position. D. Place a wedge under one of the client’s hips.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

This is because placing a wedge under one of the hips can help prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, which can compromise placental blood flow and cause fetal hypoxia. Placing a wedge under the hip can also help reduce the risk of maternal hypotension, which can also affect fetal oxygenation.
Choice A is wrong because inserting a pillow under the client’s knees can increase the risk of thromboembolism, which is a potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice B is wrong because positioning the client in reverse Trendelenburg can increase the risk of maternal aspiration, which is another potential complication of cesarean birth.
Choice C is wrong because assisting the client into the lithotomy position can also compress the inferior vena cava and reduce placental blood flow. The lithotomy position is also not necessary for cesarean birth, as the baby is delivered through an incision in the abdomen and uterus.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a school-age child who is 2 hr postoperative following cardiac catheterization. The nurse observes blood on the child’s dressing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is positioning a client for a cesarean birth. To prevent a compromise in placental blood flow during the intraoperative period, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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