A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.

This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because humidification can help moisten the oral mucosa and reduce the discomfort of xerostomia. Xerostomia is a condition of dry mouth caused by reduced or absent saliva flow, which can occur after radiation therapy to the head and neck area.
Choice A is wrong because rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-based mouthwash can irritate the oral tissues and worsen xerostomia. Alcohol can also dehydrate the mouth and reduce saliva production.
Choice B is wrong because esophageal speech is a method of voice restoration after laryngectomy, not a treatment for xerostomia.
Esophageal speech involves swallowing air into the esophagus and releasing it to create sound.
It has nothing to do with saliva flow or dry mouth.
Choice C is wrong because saltine crackers are dry and hard to swallow without adequate saliva.
They can also scratch the oral mucosa and cause pain or bleeding. Offering the client saltine crackers between meals can aggravate xerostomia and increase the risk of choking.
Normal ranges for saliva flow vary depending on the method of measurement, but generally, a stimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.7 mL/min or an unstimulated saliva flow rate of less than 0.1 mL/min is considered indicative of xerostomia.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A client who is experiencing a panic attack has a very high level of anxiety and a diminished ability to focus. The nurse should stay with the client and remain calm and reassuring during the panic attack. This can help the client feel safe and supported, and reduce the intensity of the anxiety.
Choice A is wrong because atomoxetine is not an anti-anxiety medication, but a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It has no effect on reducing anxiety and can cause side effects such as insomnia, nausea, and increased blood pressure.
Choice B is wrong because encouraging the client to watch television is not a therapeutic intervention for a panic attack.
Watching television can increase the stimuli in the client’s environment, which can worsen anxiety.
The nurse should maintain an environment with low stimulation for the client experiencing a panic attack. Dim lighting, few people, and minimal distractions can assist the nurse to decrease the client’s level of anxiety.
Choice C is wrong because teaching the client how to meditate is not appropriate during a panic attack.
Meditation is a relaxation technique that can be helpful for preventing or reducing anxiety, but it requires concentration and focus, which are impaired in a panic attack. The nurse should teach the client how to meditate when the client is calm and receptive, not when the client is in crisis.
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