A nurse is caring for a client who has a placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Nausea.
Polyhydramnios.
Uterine tenderness.
Spotting.
The Correct Answer is D
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta implants in the lower part of the uterus, partly or completely covering the cervical opening.
This can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, usually in the third trimester. Spotting is a sign of placenta previa and should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice A is wrong because nausea is not a specific finding of placenta previa.
Nausea can occur in normal pregnancy or in other conditions such as hyperemesis gravidarum or preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because polyhydramnios is not a finding of placenta previa.
Polyhydramnios is a condition where there is too much amniotic fluid in the uterus, which can cause complications such as preterm labor, cord prolapse, or fetal malformations.
Choice C is wrong because uterine tenderness is not a finding of placenta previa.
Uterine tenderness is a sign of abruptio placentae, which is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery.
This can cause severe abdominal pain, dark red vaginal bleeding, and fetal distress.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Absence seizures are brief, sudden lapses of consciousness that usually last a few seconds. They are more common in children than in adults.
A person having an absence seizure may stare blankly into space and not respond to others. They may also have subtle movements such as lip smacking or eyelid fluttering.
Choice B is wrong because absence seizures typically last less than 15 seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds.
Choice C is wrong because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
Choice D is wrong because absence seizures do not have an aura prior to onset. An aura is a warning sign that some people experience before a seizure, such as a strange feeling, smell, or vision.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
. Taking a hot shower in the morning can help decrease stiffness and improve joint mobility for people with rheumatoid arthritis. This is one of the self-management strategies that can reduce pain and disability.
Choice A is wrong because applying cold packs directly on the skin of the affected joints can cause vasoconstriction and increase inflammation.
Cold therapy should be used with caution and with a barrier between the skin and the ice pack.
Choice B is wrong because biological response modifiers are not used to prevent infection, but to reduce inflammation and slow down joint damage in rheumatoid arthritis.
These medications can actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.
Choice D is wrong because clustering physical activities during the day can cause fatigue and joint stress for people with rheumatoid arthritis.
It is better to pace activities throughout the day and take frequent breaks to rest the joints.
Normal ranges for rheumatoid arthritis are based on the disease activity score (DAS), which measures the number of swollen and tender joints, the level of inflammation in the blood, and the patient’s global assessment of health. A DAS below 2.6 indicates remission, a DAS between 2.6 and 3.2 indicates low disease activity, a DAS between 3.2 and 5.1 indicates moderate disease activity, and a DAS above 5.1 indicates high disease activity.
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