A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Attach a prefilled syringe to the catheter inflation hub.
Position the sterile drape leaving the perineum exposed.
Cleanse the client's meatus with antiseptic solution.
Lubricate the catheter with water-soluble gel.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Attaching a prefilled syringe to the catheter inflation hub is a step performed after the catheter insertion to inflate the balloon, securing the catheter in the bladder. This action is not the first step and should not be done before cleansing the meatus and positioning the sterile drape.
Choice B rationale:
Positioning the sterile drape leaving the perineum exposed is a necessary step in maintaining the sterility of the procedure area. However, it is not the first action the nurse should take. Cleaning the client's meatus with an antiseptic solution is the initial step to prevent infection during catheter insertion.
Choice C rationale:
Cleaning the client's meatus with antiseptic solution is the first step in inserting an indwelling urinary catheter. This action helps to reduce the risk of urinary tract infection by minimizing the introduction of bacteria into the urethra.
Choice D rationale:
Lubricating the catheter with water-soluble gel is a step performed after cleansing the meatus and positioning the sterile drape. It facilitates the smooth insertion of the catheter into the urethra. However, it is not the first action to be taken.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C"}
Explanation
Electrolyte imbalance in pregnant clients is often associated with conditions that lead to dehydration and nutritional deficiencies. In this scenario, the key indicators are persistent nausea and significant weight loss.
- Persistent nausea can lead to reduced food and fluid intake. This condition, especially if prolonged, can cause dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of essential minerals and nutrients that are not being replenished due to inadequate dietary intake.
- Significant weight loss, particularly the amount described in the scenario (6.8 kg or 15 lb), is a clear sign of inadequate nutritional intake and can further exacerbate the risk of electrolyte imbalance. It indicates that the body is not receiving enough nutrients, which is crucial for maintaining electrolyte balance.
The other options, while related to diet and fluid intake, are more specific to the client's eating habits and do not directly point to the primary cause of potential electrolyte imbalance in the context of this scenario. Therefore, the most comprehensive and medically relevant choice is (A) Persistent nausea and significant weight loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A. Chest x-ray is not correct because it is not related to valproic acid therapy or its adverse effects.
- B. Serum liver enzyme levels is correct because valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity and liver function tests should be monitored regularly.
- C. ABGS is not correct because it is not indicated for valproic acid therapy or its adverse effects.
- D. Urine culture and sensitivity is not correct because it is not related to valproic acid therapy or its adverse effects.
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