A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is having cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor when giving this medication?
Hypotension
Muscle pain
Ototoxicity
Hyperthermia
The Correct Answer is A
A. Verapamil, as a calcium channel blocker, can cause vasodilation (widening of blood vessels), which can lead to a decrease in blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial when administering verapamil, especially via IV bolus, as it can rapidly lower blood pressure and potentially lead to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
B. Muscle pain is not a common or expected adverse effect of verapamil. While some medications might cause muscle-related symptoms, verapamil is more commonly associated with cardiovascular effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia, rather than muscle pain.
C. Ototoxicity is not a known adverse effect of verapamil. Ototoxicity is more commonly associated with other classes of drugs, such as certain antibiotics (e.g., aminoglycosides) or diuretics. Verapamil primarily affects the cardiovascular system, so ototoxicity is not a concern with this medication.
D. Hyperthermia is not a common adverse effect of verapamil. Verapamil does not typically affect body temperature regulation. Conditions associated with hyperthermia are more likely related to infections, overheating, or certain other medications, but not verapamil.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A high CVP, not a low CVP, is typically associated with fluid overload.
B. A low CVP indicates decreased fluid volume, which is characteristic of hypovolemia. This is particularly relevant to a patient with multiple traumas who may have significant blood loss.
C. While left ventricular failure can contribute to hemodynamic instability, it's not directly correlated with a low CVP.
D. This would affect the oxygenation status of the blood, rather than the overall blood volume and CVP.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used as the first-line treatment for status epilepticus. It rapidly terminates seizures.
B. A beta-blocker, atenolol is used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures.
C. While phenytoin is an anti-seizure medication, it has a slower onset of action compared to lorazepam. It's used as a second-line agent in status epilepticus.
D. Levetiracetam is an anti-epileptic drug, but not the first choice for acute seizure management like status epilepticus.
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