A nurse is preparing to administer regular and NPH insulin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Mix the medications in a 3-mL syringe.

Inject air into the regular vial first.

Administer the medications in two separate syringes.

Withdraw the NPH insulin last.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Drawing the NPH last ensures that it does not contaminate the short acting insulin. The regular insulin should be drawn first.
A. Regular and NPH insulin should not be mixed together in a single syringe prior to administration. Mixing them could alter their action profiles and affect their effectiveness.
B. While injecting air into the vial before withdrawing medication helps prevent negative pressure and facilitates easy withdrawal of the medication, it should be done for each vial individually, not specifically for the regular insulin vial.
C. The medication should be drawn up into the same syringe before administration to the patient.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for managing trigeminal neuralgia pain. It is effective in reducing the frequency and severity of painful episodes associated with the condition.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication used to treat anxiety and certain seizure disorders. It is not typically used as a first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia pain.
B. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant medication used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and certain other conditions. It is not indicated for the management of trigeminal neuralgia pain.
D. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant medication commonly used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy. It is not indicated for the management of trigeminal neuralgia pain.

A. Female clients must have a negative mammogram prior to beginning therapy. B. Clients must have a Papanicolaou test every 6 months during treatment. C. Clients must begin a daily supplement of vitamin A for 1 month prior to initiating therapy. D. Sexually active female clients must use two forms of birth control during treatment.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. One of the primary requirements of the iPledge program for sexually active females of childbearing potential is the use of two forms of contraception simultaneously, beginning one month before starting isotretinoin therapy, throughout therapy, and for one month after discontinuation of therapy. This is to ensure effective contraception and prevent pregnancy due to the teratogenic effects of isotretinoin.
A. While mammograms are important screening tests for breast cancer, they are not a requirement of the iPledge program for female clients receiving isotretinoin.
B. Papanicolaou (Pap) tests, which screen for cervical cancer, are not a requirement of the iPledge program. However, sexually active females of childbearing potential must have monthly pregnancy tests and must agree to use two forms of contraception simultaneously during isotretinoin therapy.
C. There is no requirement for clients to take a daily supplement of vitamin A prior to initiating isotretinoin therapy as part of the iPledge program.

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A nurse is preparing to administer regular and NPH insulin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is planning to administer medications to a client who has trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to manage the client's pain?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the IPLEDGE program with a female client who has a new prescription for isotretinoin. The nurse should tell the client that which of the following is a requirement of the program?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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