A nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administration?
Platelets
OPTT
WBC
INR
The Correct Answer is D
D. The INR is the standard laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin interferes with the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, primarily factors II, VII, IX, and X. The INR provides a standardized measure of coagulation status, allowing healthcare providers to adjust warfarin dosage to maintain therapeutic anticoagulation while minimizing the risk of bleeding or thrombosis.
A. Platelets are involved in the process of blood clotting, but checking platelet levels is not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy. Platelet count may be relevant in assessing overall coagulation status, but it is not the primary laboratory value monitored for warfarin therapy.
B. OPTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot after specific clotting factors are activated. While OPTT is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy, it is not routinely monitored for warfarin therapy. Warfarin primarily affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is the standard laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy.
C. White blood cell count assesses the number of white blood cells in the blood and is used to evaluate the immune system and detect infections. Monitoring white blood cell count is not specific to warfarin therapy and is not routinely checked prior to administering warfarin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Maculopapular rash is a potential adverse effect of ceftriaxone. It is a type of skin rash characterized by flat, red areas (macules) and raised, bumpy areas (papules). If a client develops a rash while taking ceftriaxone, it should be reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation.
A. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of ceftriaxone. It is more commonly associated with other medications or medical conditions unrelated to ceftriaxone.
C. Pitting edema is not a common adverse effect of ceftriaxone. It may occur as a result of other medical conditions or medications, but it is not specifically associated with ceftriaxone.
D. Concentrated urine is not a common adverse effect of ceftriaxone.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Garlic may potentiate the effects of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. When taken together, garlic can increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet properties, potentially leading to an increased risk of bruising or bleeding episodes.
B. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication used to treat hypertension and edema. There is no known significant interaction between hydrochlorothiazide and garlic.
C. Dicloxacillin is an antibiotic medication from the penicillin class. There is no known significant interaction between dicloxacillin and garlic.
D. Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to reduce stomach acid production. There is no known significant interaction between esomeprazole and garlic.
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