A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin PO to a client who has an infection. The nurse checks the client's medical record and notes that the client has a severe allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Request a different medication from the provider

Administer the medication to the client.

Premedicate the client with diphenhydramine.

Request a different route of administration from the provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. There is no need for change of antibiotic as there is no cross-rectivity between macrolides and penicillins.
B. Given the client's severe allergy to penicillin, it would be safe to administer erythromycin, a macrolide, as there is no risk of cross-reactivity.
C. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, but premedicating the client with diphenhydramine is not necessary.
D. Changing the route of administration would not alter the risk of an allergic reaction.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. According to the recommended immunization schedule, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, before starting school. This booster dose helps ensure long- term immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella.
B. The MMR vaccine is typically administered in two doses: the first dose at 12 to 15 months of age and the second dose at 4 to 6 years of age. There is no need for additional MMR immunizations over the next 2 years if the child receives the recommended doses.
C. While the child may receive additional immunizations at 3 years of age, such as the hepatitis B vaccine, the second dose of the MMR vaccine is typically administered at 4 to 6 years of age, not 3 years.
D. Titer testing is typically not recommended for determining the need for further MMR immunizations in young children. The immunization schedule provides specific recommendations for MMR vaccine doses based on age, rather than individual titers.

A. Improved mood B. increased bone mass C. Relief of chest pain D. Absence of headache

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. The absence of headache indicates a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan is specifically indicated for the acute treatment of migraine attacks with or without aura and the acute treatment of cluster headache episodes. The absence of headache indicates that sumatriptan has effectively relieved the headache symptoms.
A. Improved mood is not a direct therapeutic response to sumatriptan. While relieving headache pain may contribute to an improved mood, sumatriptan primarily targets headache symptoms rather than mood regulation.
B. Increased bone mass is not a therapeutic response to sumatriptan. Sumatriptan does not affect bone metabolism or bone mass. Therefore, changes in bone mass would not be related to sumatriptan therapy.
C. Sumatriptan is not used in the management of chest pain.

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A nurse is preparing to administer erythromycin PO to a client who has an infection. The nurse checks the client's medical record and notes that the client has a severe allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the parents of a 13-month-old child following administration of the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking sumatriptan. Which of the following reports indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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