A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing benzodiazepine toxicity.
The nurse should plan to administer which of the following medications?
                            
                                                                                                    Atropine.
Flumazenil.
Activated charcoal.
Naloxone.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for the benzodiazepine receptor and is used as an antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It competitively inhibits the effects of benzodiazepines by binding to the same receptor sites in the central nervous system. Flumazenil can rapidly reverse the sedative and respiratory-depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario.
Choice A rationale:
Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that is used to treat bradycardia and certain types of heart block. It has no specific antidote effects for benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this situation.
Choice C rationale:
Activated charcoal is used in the management of certain types of poisonings by adsorbing the toxic substance in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its absorption into the bloodstream. However, it is not effective for benzodiazepine toxicity, which primarily affects the central nervous system and not the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It has no specific effects on benzodiazepine toxicity and would not be the appropriate choice in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Prednisone should generally be taken with food or after a meal to reduce the risk of gastric irritation or ulcer formation. Taking it on an empty stomach can irritate the stomach lining and increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects, such as gastritis or peptic ulcers.
B. While some medications are best taken at bedtime (such as those with sedative effects), prednisone is a corticosteroid that can affect the body's circadian rhythm and may interfere with sleep. It typically causes insomnia or restlessness, so it’s usually advised to take it in the morning.
C. Prednisone and other corticosteroids can lead to bone loss (osteoporosis) over time, especially with long-term use. One of the side effects of corticosteroid therapy is decreased calcium absorption and bone density loss, making individuals at higher risk for fractures.
D. Prednisone more commonly causes weight gain rather than weight loss. Corticosteroids increase appetite and can lead to fluid retention, both of which can result in weight gain. Additionally, prednisone can cause redistribution of fat, often leading to characteristic side effects like "moon face" or increased abdominal fat.
B. Incorrect. Prednisone is often prescribed as a single daily dose in the morning to coincide with the body's natural cortisol release.
C. Incorrect. While calcium supplementation might be necessary for some individuals on long-term prednisone therapy, it is not a primary instruction related to taking prednisone.
D. Correct. Monitoring for weight loss is important due to the potential for weight changes (both weight gain and weight loss) as a result of prednisone's effects on metabolism and appetite.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A capillary glucose level of 198 mg/dL in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) suggests hyperglycemia, which is a common complication of TPN. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients receiving TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and manage hyperglycemia promptly.
Choice B rationale:
Serum albumin level of 3.9 g/dL is within the normal range (3.5-5.5 g/dL) and does not indicate a complication of TPN. Low serum albumin levels could suggest malnutrition or liver disease, but in this case, the level is normal.
Choice C rationale:
Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 15.6 g/dL is within the normal range for both men and women, indicating an adequate oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. This result does not suggest a complication related to TPN.
Choice D rationale:
White blood cell (WBC) count of 7,000/mm³ is within the normal range (4,500-11,000/mm³) and does not indicate a complication of TPN. Elevated WBC count could suggest an infection, but in this case, the count is normal.
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