A nurse is performing a nonstress test on a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has diabetes mellitus. The test reveals no accelerations of fetal heart rate for 20 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Perform vibroacoustic stimulation.
Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
Conduct a vaginal exam.
Collect a specimen for an indirect Coombs' test.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Vibroacoustic stimulation is an appropriate action to perform during a nonstress test if there are no fetal heart rate accelerations. It involves using sound or vibration to stimulate the fetus, potentially eliciting the desired heart rate accelerations.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not indicated in this situation. It may not benefit the fetus and is not a standard intervention for nonreactive nonstress test results.
Choice C rationale:
Conducting a vaginal exam is not relevant to the situation described in the question. A nonreactive nonstress test does not require a vaginal exam.
Choice D rationale:
Collecting a specimen for an indirect Coombs test is not necessary for this scenario. The test result would not provide information relevant to the nonreactive nonstress test.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath.
Choice A rationale:
A cool sitz bath can help reduce swelling and provide pain relief for a client with a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Cooling the area can also help minimize inflammation and promote healing.
Choice B rationale:
Methylergonovine is typically used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. It is not indicated for the management of perineal lacerations.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a moist, warm compress to the perineum is not recommended immediately postpartum for a fourth-degree laceration, as it can increase swelling and discomfort. Cool treatments are preferred initially.
Choice D rationale:
Applying povidone-iodine to the perineum is not a standard practice for managing perineal lacerations. It can cause irritation and is not necessary for wound care in this context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This manifestation, urine output of 20 mL/hr, is an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate can lead to decreased urine output, and it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's urinary output closely. Low urine output may indicate decreased kidney function, which can be a sign of magnesium toxicity.
Choice B rationale:
Hypertension is expected in a client with preeclampsia, and magnesium sulfate is used to help manage and prevent seizures in these cases. While it is essential to monitor and manage hypertension during pregnancy, it is not considered an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate.
Choice C rationale:
Hyperglycemia is not a common adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate may cause central nervous system depression, muscle weakness, and respiratory depression, but it does not typically cause hyperglycemia.
Choice D rationale:
A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for an adult and is not indicative of an adverse reaction to magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression at higher doses, but a respiratory rate of 16/min does not raise immediate concerns.
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