A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client about caring for her 5-day-old male newborn at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
"Swaddle your baby tightly with his legs extended before laying him down to sleep.".
"Notify your baby's pediatrician if he urinates less than six times a day.".
"Retract the foreskin to clean your baby's penis during each bath.".
"Place triple antibiotic ointment on your baby's umbilical cord twice per day."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Swaddling the baby tightly with his legs extended before laying him down to sleep is not a recommended practice, as it can increase the risk of hip dysplasia. Instead, the baby should be placed on their back in a safe sleep environment.
Choice B rationale:
This statement is correct because monitoring the baby's urinary output is essential in ensuring adequate hydration and proper kidney function. Less than six wet diapers a day could be a sign of dehydration and should be promptly reported to the pediatrician.
Choice C rationale:
It is not necessary to retract the foreskin to clean the baby's penis during each bath. The foreskin should be left alone and not forcibly retracted until it naturally loosens, usually around the age of 3 to 5 years.
Choice D rationale:
Applying triple antibiotic ointment on the baby's umbilical cord is not recommended, as the standard practice is to keep the umbilical cord clean and dry. This helps it to fall off naturally within a week or two after birth, reducing the risk of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is c. Ampicillin.
Rationale:
- Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolyticis a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women.While usually harmless to the mother,it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections,including pneumonia,meningitis,and sepsis.
- Ampicillinis thefirst-line antibioticrecommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for theprevention of GBS disease in newborns.It belongs to thepenicillin classof antibiotics,which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Doxycyclineis not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns.
- Cefotetanis an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy,but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Fluconazoleis an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.
Detailed Rationale for Each Choice:
a. Doxycycline:
- Rationale against:
- Poor penetration into amniotic fluid:Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac,where the baby is surrounded,and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection.
- Adverse effects in newborns:Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.
b. Cefotetan:
- Rationale for:
- Alternative for penicillin allergy:Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy.
- Rationale against:
- Second-line option:Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
c. Ampicillin:
- Rationale for:
- First-line antibiotic:Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
- High effectiveness against GBS:Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Good safety profile:Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Cost-effectiveness:Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options.
- First-line antibiotic:Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
d. Fluconazole:
- Rationale against:
- Antifungal medication:Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS,which is a bacterium.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Levothyroxine is not a medication used to treat gestational diabetes mellitus. Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, which is a different medical condition.
Choice B rationale:
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to manage hypertension and angina. It is not indicated for the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice C rationale:
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication used to treat conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It has no role in the treatment of gestational diabetes mellitus.
Choice D rationale:
Glyburide is the correct medication to expect for administering to a client with gestational diabetes mellitus. Glyburide is an oral antidiabetic agent that helps lower blood glucose levels by increasing insulin secretion from the pancreas. It is often used when dietary and lifestyle modifications are not sufficient in managing gestational diabetes. However, it is essential to follow healthcare provider guidelines and closely monitor the client's blood glucose levels while on this medication. In some cases, insulin may be required if glyburide alone is inadequate in controlling blood sugar levels.
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