A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia during a prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Blood glucose 110 mg/dL.
Urine protein of 3+.
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Requesting that the provider insert an intrauterine pressure catheter is not the immediate action the nurse should take when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation.
Choice B rationale:
Exerting continuous upward pressure on the presenting part is the correct action when the nurse palpates the umbilical cord during a vaginal examination. This manoeuvre is called "vaginal elevation,”. helps lift the presenting part off the umbilical cord, reducing the risk of cord compression and fetal distress until the provider can take further action.
Choice C rationale:
Initiating oxytocin via continuous IV infusion is not appropriate when the umbilical cord is palpated during a vaginal examination. Oxytocin can cause uterine contractions, potentially further compromising the cord and fetus.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the client in the left-lateral position is not the best immediate action for cord palpation. While the left-lateral position is useful for relieving pressure on the vena cava in cases of supine hypotensive syndrome, the priority here is to relieve cord compression, and upward pressure on the presenting part is more effective.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
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