A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia during a prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Blood glucose 110 mg/dL.
Urine protein of 3+.
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Decreasing the maintenance IV solution infusion rate is not the appropriate action for addressing late decelerations of the fetal heart rate. Late decelerations are a concerning sign during labor, indicating possible fetal distress. This can be caused by inadequate oxygenation of the fetus, and reducing IV fluids would not directly address this issue.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the client in a lateral (side-lying) position is the correct action when late decelerations are observed. This position helps to improve uteroplacental blood flow and can relieve pressure on the inferior vena cava, thus increasing oxygen supply to the fetus.
Choice C rationale:
Administering oxygen via face mask at 2 L/min is not the priority action in response to late decelerations. While oxygen may be beneficial in certain situations, it is not the initial intervention for addressing fetal heart rate decelerations.
Choice D rationale:
Administering misoprostol 25 mcg vaginally is not appropriate for addressing late decelerations. Misoprostol is a medication used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, but it does not directly address fetal heart rate changes.
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