A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia during a prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Blood glucose 110 mg/dL.
Urine protein of 3+.
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale:
Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to enhance lung maturity in preterm infants and has no role in treating uterine atony.
Choice B rationale:
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure and is not indicated for the management of uterine atony.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication used to relax the uterus and delay preterm labour. It is not used to address uterine atony.
Choice D rationale:
Methylergonovine is a uterotonic medication commonly used to treat uterine atony by causing uterine contractions and controlling postpartum bleeding. It helps the uterus contract and prevents further blood loss.
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