A nurse is assessing a client who has preeclampsia during a prenatal visit. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Blood glucose 110 mg/dL.
Urine protein of 3+.
Hemoglobin 13 g/dL.
Deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A blood glucose level of 110 mg/dL is within the normal range for a non-pregnant individual. During pregnancy, the target range for blood glucose levels may vary, but 110 mg/dL does not typically raise concerns for preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
A haemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is within the normal range for a pregnant woman. While haemoglobin levels are important to monitor during pregnancy, this value alone does not indicate a significant concern related to preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 2+ are within the normal range. Higher DTR levels may be concerning, but a 2+ rating is normal and does not raise immediate alarm for preeclampsia.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that she cannot have an amniocentesis until she is at least 35 years of age. Age is not the primary factor for determining the eligibility for an amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is typically performed when there is a medical indication, such as advanced maternal age, abnormal prenatal screening, or a family history of genetic disorders.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not schedule the amniocentesis for later today without further clarification from the provider. Scheduling medical procedures without the provider's approval is not within the nurse's scope of practice and could lead to potential risks.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer. The nurse should explain to the client that amniocentesis is a procedure used to determine if the baby has genetic or congenital disorders. It involves the extraction of a small amount of amniotic fluid to analyze the fetal cells for genetic abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should not tell the client that her provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) to determine the sex of the baby. CVS is another prenatal diagnostic test, but its primary purpose is to detect genetic disorders early in pregnancy, not to determine the baby's sex.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Preterm gestational age is not indicated by the presence of breast tissue with a flat areola and no bud. Preterm newborns may have immature breast tissue, but it does not manifest as a flat areola with no bud.
Choice B rationale:
Decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy would result in less developed breast tissue in the newborn, but it wouldn't present as a flat areola with no bud. Instead, the breast tissue may be small and less pronounced.
Choice C rationale:
Congenital anomaly refers to a birth defect or malformation that occurs during fetal development. In this case, the flat areola with no bud suggests an abnormality in the development of the breast tissue. Further assessment and evaluation may be required to determine the exact nature of the anomaly.
Choice D rationale:
Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics would involve the presence of characteristics that are not clearly male or female. The described breast tissue does not fit this category, as it is specifically described as having a flat areola with no bud, which is more indicative of a congenital anomaly.
Question 65.
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