A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labour and reports sudden, severe lower abdominal pain. The nurse observes a drop in the client's blood pressure and notes cool skin and pallor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows prolonged bradycardia. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

Amniotic fluid embolism.

Uterine rupture.

Umbilical cord prolapse.

Placenta previa.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication during labor or immediately after delivery, where amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enter the mother's bloodstream and cause a severe reaction. While it may present with sudden and severe symptoms, such as hypotension and respiratory distress, it does not typically cause uterine rupture.

Choice B rationale:

Uterine rupture is a life-threatening emergency that can occur during labor, especially in women with previous uterine surgeries or trauma. The sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, drop in blood pressure, cool skin, and pallor could indicate internal bleeding and shock, which are consistent with uterine rupture. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing suggests fetal distress due to compromised blood flow.

Choice C rationale:

Umbilical cord prolapse is another obstetric emergency that occurs when the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and gets compressed during labor, leading to fetal distress. It may cause variable decelerations in fetal heart rate, but it does not explain the maternal symptoms described in the scenario, such as the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor.

Choice D rationale:

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it can lead to painless vaginal bleeding. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not explain the maternal symptoms like the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing is more suggestive of uterine rupture.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is Choice C.

Choice A rationale: Bluish discoloration of the hands and feet (acrocyanosis) is common in newborns and usually resolves within the first few days of life. It is not typically a priority unless it persists or is accompanied by other signs of distress.

Choice B rationale: Overlapping of the cranial bones (craniosynostosis) requires monitoring but is not an immediate priority unless there are signs of increased intracranial pressure.

Choice C rationale: Forward and lateral positioning of the ears can be indicative of certain genetic conditions, such as Down syndrome. This finding is significant as it can signal the need for further evaluation and intervention to address any associated health concerns.

Choice D rationale: Small, distended white sebaceous glands on the face (milia) are common in newborns and resolve on their own without intervention.

A. Perform vibroacoustic stimulation. B. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position. C. Conduct a vaginal exam. D. Collect a specimen for an indirect Coombs' test.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Vibroacoustic stimulation is an appropriate action to perform during a nonstress test if there are no fetal heart rate accelerations. It involves using sound or vibration to stimulate the fetus, potentially eliciting the desired heart rate accelerations.

Choice B rationale:

Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is not indicated in this situation. It may not benefit the fetus and is not a standard intervention for nonreactive nonstress test results.

Choice C rationale:

Conducting a vaginal exam is not relevant to the situation described in the question. A nonreactive nonstress test does not require a vaginal exam.

Choice D rationale:

Collecting a specimen for an indirect Coombs test is not necessary for this scenario. The test result would not provide information relevant to the nonreactive nonstress test.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 4 hr old. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority to report to the provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is performing a nonstress test on a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has diabetes mellitus. The test reveals no accelerations of fetal heart rate for 20 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse is assessing a client who is at 12 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider as an indication of an imminent spontaneous abortion?

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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who reports that her baby has yellow discharge forming at the circumcision site. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A nurse manager in a newborn nursery is reviewing infection control procedures with a group of newly hired nurses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse manager include in the teaching?

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