A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labour and reports sudden, severe lower abdominal pain. The nurse observes a drop in the client's blood pressure and notes cool skin and pallor. The fetal heart rate tracing shows prolonged bradycardia. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

Amniotic fluid embolism.

Uterine rupture.

Umbilical cord prolapse.

Placenta previa.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication during labor or immediately after delivery, where amniotic fluid, fetal cells, hair, or other debris enter the mother's bloodstream and cause a severe reaction. While it may present with sudden and severe symptoms, such as hypotension and respiratory distress, it does not typically cause uterine rupture.

Choice B rationale:

Uterine rupture is a life-threatening emergency that can occur during labor, especially in women with previous uterine surgeries or trauma. The sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, drop in blood pressure, cool skin, and pallor could indicate internal bleeding and shock, which are consistent with uterine rupture. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing suggests fetal distress due to compromised blood flow.

Choice C rationale:

Umbilical cord prolapse is another obstetric emergency that occurs when the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and gets compressed during labor, leading to fetal distress. It may cause variable decelerations in fetal heart rate, but it does not explain the maternal symptoms described in the scenario, such as the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor.

Choice D rationale:

Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, and it can lead to painless vaginal bleeding. While it can cause fetal distress, it does not explain the maternal symptoms like the sudden, severe lower abdominal pain, hypotension, cool skin, and pallor. Prolonged bradycardia on the fetal heart rate tracing is more suggestive of uterine rupture.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice c. One acceleration of the FHR within a 20-min period.

Here's the rationale for each choice:

Choice A: Rationale: A non-stress test (NST) is supposed to assess fetal well-being by looking for accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement. An FHR that peaks 20 beats above the baseline is a desirable finding in an NST, indicating good fetal reactivity.

Choice B: Rationale: While not typical during a standard NST, three uterine contractions within a 20-minute period might not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, the nurse should document it and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment, especially if the contractions are causing discomfort or if there are other concerning signs.

Choice C: Rationale: A single acceleration of the FHR within a 20-minute NST is considered non-reactive and may indicate fetal compromise. This finding requires further investigation by the healthcare provider, potentially including additional monitoring or interventions.

Choice D: Rationale: Uterine contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds each are not a typical finding during an NST, but they may not necessarily be a cause for immediate concern unless they are causing the client pain or are accompanied by other concerning signs. The nurse should document the contractions and notify the healthcare provider.

A. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath. B. Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM. C. Apply a moist, warm compress to the perineum. D. Apply povidone-iodine to the client's perineum after she voids.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice a. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath.

Choice A rationale:

A cool sitz bath can help reduce swelling and provide pain relief for a client with a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Cooling the area can also help minimize inflammation and promote healing.

Choice B rationale:

Methylergonovine is typically used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. It is not indicated for the management of perineal lacerations.

Choice C rationale:

Applying a moist, warm compress to the perineum is not recommended immediately postpartum for a fourth-degree laceration, as it can increase swelling and discomfort. Cool treatments are preferred initially.

Choice D rationale:

Applying povidone-iodine to the perineum is not a standard practice for managing perineal lacerations. It can cause irritation and is not necessary for wound care in this context.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is monitoring a client who is undergoing a nonstress test at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing the reflexes of a term newborn. After placing the newborn in the supine position, which of the following methods should the nurse use to elicit the Moro reflex?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse administers butorphanol IV bolus for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider following this medication?

A nurse is performing a nonstress test on a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has diabetes mellitus. The test reveals no accelerations of fetal heart rate for 20 min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a postpartum client about caring for her 5-day-old male newborn at home. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?

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