A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum and has endometritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Temperature 37.4°C (99.3°F).

Uterine tenderness.

WBC Count 9,000/mm.

Scant lochia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale:

A postpartum temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is within the normal range. Mild temperature elevations can be expected in the immediate postpartum period without indicating infection.

Choice B rationale:

Uterine tenderness is a common finding in endometritis, which is an inflammation or infection of the inner lining of the uterus. The condition can cause pelvic pain and uterine tenderness.

Choice C rationale:

A white blood cell (WBC) count of 9,000/mm³ falls within the normal range for a postpartum client. In endometritis, an elevated WBC count would be expected due to the infection.

Choice D rationale:

Scant lochia (minimal vaginal discharge after childbirth) is a normal finding in the postpartum period and is not associated with endometritis. In endometritis, the lochia may be increased and foul-smelling.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The incompetent cervix is not related to the client's current situation. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that may result in premature dilation during pregnancy, leading to potential pregnancy loss or preterm birth. It is not relevant to the client's current stage of labour and cervical dilation.

Choice B rationale:
Postpartum haemorrhage is the correct condition to be concerned about in this situation. The client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated, which indicates she is in active labour. These signs of progress indicate that she is at risk for excessive bleeding after delivery, which is known as postpartum haemorrhage.

Choice C rationale:
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is not related to the client's current presentation, as she is already in active labour.

Choice D rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually during the first trimester. This condition is not relevant to the client's current situation, which involves active labour and cervical dilation.

A. Position the client in a knee-chest position. B. Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's. C. Give terbutaline subcutaneously. D. Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.

Choice A rationale:

Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.

Choice B rationale:

Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.

Choice C rationale:

Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.

Choice D rationale:

Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum and has endometritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

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