A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Position the client in a knee-chest position.
Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's.
Give terbutaline subcutaneously.
Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Flat areola without breast bud indicates immature breast tissue development, a marker of preterm gestational age due to incomplete fetal maturation of secondary sexual characteristics.
Choice B rationale: Maternal hormones influence neonatal breast tissue temporarily, but absence of bud reflects developmental immaturity rather than decreased maternal hormones during pregnancy.
Choice C rationale: Congenital anomalies involve structural malformations, not absence of breast bud, which is a normal developmental stage in preterm infants rather than a pathological anomaly.
Choice D rationale: Ambiguous secondary sex characteristics refer to atypical genital or pubertal development, not neonatal breast tissue maturity, making this unrelated to the flat areola finding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Choice A rationale:
Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics is crucial for a newborn with a myelomeningocele that is leaking cerebrospinal fluid to prevent infection. The leaking of cerebrospinal fluid can increase the risk of meningitis, which is an infection of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are used as a prophylactic measure to reduce this risk.
Choice B rationale:
Monitoring the rectal temperature every 4 hours is important for detecting fever, which could indicate infection. However, it is not the most immediate action required for a newborn with a leaking myelomeningocele. The priority is to prevent infection through the administration of antibiotics.
Choice C rationale:
Cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is not recommended for a myelomeningocele because it can be toxic to the exposed neural tissue. Instead, the area should be covered with a sterile saline dressing to protect the site and prevent drying and further damage to the neural tissue.
Choice D rationale:
While surgical closure is necessary for a newborn with myelomeningocele, it is typically performed within 24 to 48 hours after birth, not after 72 hours. Early closure is essential to reduce the risk of infection and further damage to the exposed spinal cord and nerves.
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