A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Position the client in a knee-chest position.
Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's.
Give terbutaline subcutaneously.
Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice a. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath.
Choice A rationale:
A cool sitz bath can help reduce swelling and provide pain relief for a client with a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Cooling the area can also help minimize inflammation and promote healing.
Choice B rationale:
Methylergonovine is typically used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by causing uterine contractions. It is not indicated for the management of perineal lacerations.
Choice C rationale:
Applying a moist, warm compress to the perineum is not recommended immediately postpartum for a fourth-degree laceration, as it can increase swelling and discomfort. Cool treatments are preferred initially.
Choice D rationale:
Applying povidone-iodine to the perineum is not a standard practice for managing perineal lacerations. It can cause irritation and is not necessary for wound care in this context.
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