A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Position the client in a knee-chest position.

Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's.

Give terbutaline subcutaneously.

Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.

Choice A rationale:

Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.

Choice B rationale:

Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.

Choice C rationale:

Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.

Choice D rationale:

Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:
The incompetent cervix is not related to the client's current situation. An incompetent cervix refers to a weakened cervix that may result in premature dilation during pregnancy, leading to potential pregnancy loss or preterm birth. It is not relevant to the client's current stage of labour and cervical dilation.

Choice B rationale:
Postpartum haemorrhage is the correct condition to be concerned about in this situation. The client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated, which indicates she is in active labour. These signs of progress indicate that she is at risk for excessive bleeding after delivery, which is known as postpartum haemorrhage.

Choice C rationale:
An ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, typically in the fallopian tube. This condition is not related to the client's current presentation, as she is already in active labour.

Choice D rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, usually during the first trimester. This condition is not relevant to the client's current situation, which involves active labour and cervical dilation.

A. A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and is experiencing epigastric pain and headache. B. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and is experiencing nausea and vomiting. C. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and is experiencing painful urination. D. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is experiencing cramping and spotting.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale:

Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.

Choice C rationale:

Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.

Choice D rationale:

Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse on an antepartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and is receiving oxytocin via IV infusion. The nurse has applied an internal fetal heart monitor and recognizes an early deceleration of the fetal heart rate tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth and notes a large amount of mucus in the newborn's mouth and nose. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow when performing suction with a bulb syringe.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing uterine atony immediately following delivery. The client fails to respond to oxytocin administration. The nurse should anticipate the use of which of the following medications?

Exhibits A nurse is caring for a 2-day-old newborn who was born at 35 weeks of gestation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is caring for a client who has had a pudendal nerve block. The nurse should monitor which of the following findings has an adverse effect.

A nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hr postpartum and has endometritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings places the client at risk for postpartum haemorrhage?(Select all that apply.)

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation following a spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse performs a vaginal examination and palpates the umbilical cord. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?