A nurse is caring for a client who has maternal hypotension following the placement of an epidural. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Position the client in a knee-chest position.
Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer's.
Give terbutaline subcutaneously.
Apply oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B: Administer a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s.
Choice A rationale:
Positioning the client in a knee-chest position is not the standard intervention for maternal hypotension following epidural placement. This position is more commonly associated with cord prolapse or to relieve pressure on the vena cava.
Choice B rationale:
Administering a bolus infusion of lactated Ringer’s is the correct action. Hypotension during epidural analgesia is treated with additional intravenous boluses of crystalloid solution. This helps to increase the circulating blood volume and counteract the vasodilation caused by the epidural.
Choice C rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication used to relax the uterus and prevent premature labor, not for treating hypotension.
Choice D rationale:
Applying oxygen via a nonrebreather face mask at 2 L/min is not the primary treatment for maternal hypotension. Oxygen may be used as a supportive measure if there is evidence of fetal distress or maternal hypoxemia, but the first line of treatment for hypotension is fluid administration.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is c. Ampicillin.
Rationale:
- Group B Streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolyticis a bacterium that can colonize the vagina and rectum of pregnant women.While usually harmless to the mother,it can be passed to the newborn during birth and cause serious infections,including pneumonia,meningitis,and sepsis.
- Ampicillinis thefirst-line antibioticrecommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for theprevention of GBS disease in newborns.It belongs to thepenicillin classof antibiotics,which are highly effective against GBS and generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Doxycyclineis not recommended for GBS prophylaxis due to its poor penetration into amniotic fluid and potential for causing tooth discoloration and bone development problems in newborns.
- Cefotetanis an alternative option for women with penicillin allergy,but ampicillin is still preferred due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Fluconazoleis an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS bacteria.
Detailed Rationale for Each Choice:
a. Doxycycline:
- Rationale against:
- Poor penetration into amniotic fluid:Doxycycline does not effectively reach the amniotic sac,where the baby is surrounded,and therefore may not adequately protect the newborn from GBS infection.
- Adverse effects in newborns:Doxycycline can cause tooth discoloration and bone development problems in infants exposed in utero.
b. Cefotetan:
- Rationale for:
- Alternative for penicillin allergy:Cefotetan is a cephalosporin antibiotic effective against GBS and can be used in women with penicillin allergy.
- Rationale against:
- Second-line option:Ampicillin is the preferred choice due to its lower cost and broader spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
c. Ampicillin:
- Rationale for:
- First-line antibiotic:Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
- High effectiveness against GBS:Ampicillin has a broad spectrum of activity against GBS strains.
- Good safety profile:Ampicillin is generally well-tolerated by pregnant women and newborns.
- Cost-effectiveness:Ampicillin is a relatively inexpensive antibiotic compared to other options.
- First-line antibiotic:Ampicillin is the CDC-recommended first-line antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis due to its:
d. Fluconazole:
- Rationale against:
- Antifungal medication:Fluconazole is an antifungal medication and has no activity against GBS,which is a bacterium.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should assess this client first as they are at 34 weeks of gestation and experiencing epigastric pain and headache. These symptoms could be indicative of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage. Preeclampsia requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale:
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms during the first trimester of pregnancy, and at 12 weeks of gestation, it is less likely to be a critical issue compared to potential preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale:
Painful urination may indicate a urinary tract infection, which can be important to assess and treat, but it is not as urgent as potential signs of preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation.
Choice D rationale:
Cramping and spotting can be normal signs of impending labor, especially at 39 weeks of gestation. While it's important to assess this client, it is not the priority over potential preeclampsia in a client at 34 weeks of gestation with symptoms of epigastric pain and headache.
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