A nurse on an antepartum unit is reviewing the medical records for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who has placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36%.
A client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and a sodium level of 110 mEq/L.
A client who has diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8%.
A client who has preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
A client with placenta previa and a hematocrit of 36% should be monitored closely due to the risk of bleeding, but it is not an immediate priority compared to the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and a low sodium level.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by excessive vomiting, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. A sodium level of 110 mEq/L is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to correct the electrolyte disturbance and prevent further complications.
Choice C rationale:
A client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 5.8% is within a normal range, indicating good glycemic control. This client's condition can be managed on an outpatient basis and does not require urgent assessment compared to the others.
Choice D rationale:
A client with preeclampsia and a creatinine level of 1.1 mg/dL should be closely monitored, but it is not the priority over the client with hyperemesis gravidarum and severe electrolyte imbalance.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Newborn weight of 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Newborn weight is not directly related to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother.
Choice B rationale:
History of uterine atony places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage and refers to the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
Labor induction with oxytocin places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is commonly used to induce labor or augment contractions, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, leading to increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale:
History of human papillomavirus (HPV) does not place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection and does not have a direct connection to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale:
Vacuum-assisted delivery places the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage. Vacuum assisted delivery involves using a vacuum device to assist in the baby's delivery, and it can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding risk in the mother.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Bright, red vaginal discharge is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. Instead, it can be indicative of other conditions such as miscarriage or vaginal bleeding.
Choice B rationale:
A scaphoid abdomen is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. A scaphoid abdomen is seen in cases of diaphragmatic hernia, where the abdominal organs move into the chest cavity, leaving the abdomen with a sunken appearance.
Choice C rationale:
Elevated blood pressure is not a typical manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. High blood pressure can be associated with conditions like preeclampsia but is not specifically linked to ectopic pregnancies.
Choice D rationale:
Sharp pelvic pain is a common manifestation of an ectopic pregnancy. As the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, often in the fallopian tube, it can cause pain and discomfort.
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