A nurse is monitoring a client who had a cerebral aneurysm rupture. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?
Hypertension
Tinnitus
Hypotension
Tachycardia
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Hypertension is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure, as it reflects the body's attempt to maintain adequate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and blood flow to the brain. CPP is the difference between the mean arterial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP). When ICP rises, MAP must also rise to keep CPP constant and prevent cerebral ischemia. Hypertension is part of the Cushing's triad, which is a classic sign of increased ICP that also includes bradycardia and irregular respirations.
Choice B reason: Tinnitus is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure, as it does not affect the auditory system. Tinnitus is a ringing, buzzing, or hissing sound in the ears that can be caused by various factors, such as ear infections, noise exposure, medications, or aging. Tinnitus may be associated with other neurological conditions, such as Meniere's disease, acoustic neuroma, or multiple sclerosis, but not with increased ICP.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure, as it indicates a decrease in MAP and CPP, which can lead to cerebral ischemia and infarction. Hypotension can be caused by various factors, such as blood loss, dehydration, shock, or medications. Hypotension may worsen the outcome of increased ICP by reducing the oxygen and nutrient delivery to the brain.
Choice D reason: Tachycardia is not a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure, as it contradicts Cushing's triad. Tachycardia is an increase in heart rate that can be caused by various factors, such as anxiety, pain, fever, dehydration, or medications. Tachycardia may increase the oxygen demand and metabolic rate of the brain, which can exacerbate the effects of increased ICP.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Proactive prevention is not a level of prevention, but rather a type of prevention that involves taking action before a problem occurs or worsens. It can be applied to any level of prevention, such as primary, secondary, or tertiary.
Choice B reason: Secondary prevention is a level of prevention that involves detecting and treating diseases or injuries early before they cause significant complications or disabilities. It includes activities such as screening tests, diagnostic tests, or medications.
Choice C reason: Tertiary prevention is a level of prevention that involves reducing the impact and consequences of diseases or injuries that have already occurred and caused damage or impairment. It includes activities such as rehabilitation, surgery, or palliative care.
Choice D reason: Primary prevention is a level of prevention that involves preventing diseases or injuries from occurring in the first place, by eliminating or reducing risk factors or enhancing protective factors. It includes activities such as immunization, education, or lifestyle modification. Advising a client with osteoporosis to have three servings of milk or dairy products daily is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent further bone loss and fractures by increasing calcium intake.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Plantar flexion is the movement of the foot that points the toes downward. It is not a test for gait, but rather a test for muscle strength and nerve function in the lower leg.
Choice B reason: Romberg is a test for balance and coordination that involves asking the client to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides, first with their eyes open and then with their eyes closed. If the client sways or falls when their eyes are closed, it indicates a problem with their proprioception, which is the sense of position and movement of the body. Ataxia is a condition that affects proprioception and causes impaired gait, so Romberg is an appropriate test for it.
Choice C reason: Achilles reflex is the contraction of the calf muscle when the Achilles tendon is tapped. It is not a test for gait, but rather a test for spinal cord function and nerve damage in the lower leg.
Choice D reason: Patellar reflex is the extension of the lower leg when the patellar tendon is tapped. It is not a test for gait, but rather a test for spinal cord function and nerve damage in the upper leg.

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