A nurse is collecting a sputum specimen from a client who has tuberculosis.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up.
Ask the client to provide 15 to 20 mL of sputum into the container.
Wear sterile gloves to collect the specimen from the client.
Wait 1 day to collect the specimen if the client cannot provide sputum.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice a.
Choice a rationale: The nurse should obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up, as sputum from deep in the lungs is usually more easily collected at this time. Sputum collected upon waking up is more likely to contain secretions from the lower respiratory tract, providing a better sample for tuberculosis diagnosis. This timing maximizes the chance of detecting the bacteria.
Choice b rationale: Choice b is incorrect because the typical volume of sputum needed for testing is about 1 teaspoon (5 mL), not 15 to 20 mL. Collecting such a large volume could be challenging for the client and unnecessary for diagnostic purposes.
Choice c rationale: Choice c is incorrect because while gloves should be worn, they do not need to be sterile, just clean. The use of clean gloves is sufficient to prevent contamination during specimen collection, and sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.
Choice d rationale: Choice d is incorrect because it’s important to try to collect the specimen as soon as possible, not wait a full day. Delaying collection for a day could result in a missed opportunity to diagnose tuberculosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Collecting the specimen promptly maximizes the accuracy of diagnostic testing and facilitates timely intervention for the client's health.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is **a. Observe for bruising of the skin.**
Choice A rationale: Observing for bruising of the skin is an appropriate nursing intervention when caring for a client receiving alteplase (recombinant tissue plasminogen activator or rt-PA), a thrombolytic medication used to dissolve blood clots. Alteplase can increase the risk of bleeding, including bruising, as it works to break down the clot. Closely monitoring the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising is crucial to identify and manage potential complications.
Choice B rationale: Administering medications intramuscularly is not recommended when a client is receiving alteplase. Intramuscular injections can increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided, as alteplase can impair the body's ability to form clots and stop bleeding.
Choice C rationale: Monitoring vital signs every 4 hours is not the appropriate frequency for a client receiving alteplase. Vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 30 minutes to 1 hour, to closely observe for any changes that may indicate bleeding or other complications.
Choice D rationale: Providing a diet low in protein is not a necessary intervention for a client receiving alteplase. Alteplase works by targeting the blood clot and does not require specific dietary modifications. The focus should be on monitoring for bleeding and managing any potential complications, rather than adjusting the client's diet.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The client with epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities might be experiencing complications related to the epidural, such as epidural hematoma or nerve damage. However, the immediate concern is the client with a hip fracture and new onset of tachypnea. Tachypnea can indicate a pulmonary embolism or worsening respiratory status due to the fracture, both of which require urgent assessment and intervention.
Choice B rationale:
The client with diabetes mellitus and an HbA1c of 6.89% has a well-controlled blood glucose level. This condition does not require immediate attention compared to the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea, who might be experiencing a life-threatening complication.
Choice C rationale:
The client with a hip fracture and new onset of tachypnea is the priority for assessment. Tachypnea can be a sign of respiratory distress, which could indicate a pulmonary embolism or worsening lung function due to the fracture. Timely intervention is crucial to prevent further complications.
Choice D rationale:
The client with sinus arrhythmia and cardiac monitoring is stable and does not require immediate attention compared to the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea.
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