A nurse is performing a neurological examination on a client as part of a complete physical assessment.
The nurse should identify that cranial nerve XI is intact when the client performs which of the following actions?
Sticks his tongue out.
Frowns symmetrically.
Identifies a sour taste.
Shrugs his shoulders.
None
None
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: Sticking the tongue out assesses cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). This action is used to evaluate tongue movement and is not related to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve) function.
Choice B rationale: Frowning symmetrically assesses cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). This action is used to evaluate facial muscle strength and is not related to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve) function.
Choice C rationale: Identifying a sour taste assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). This action is related to taste sensation on the posterior third of the tongue and is not specific to cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve) function.
Choice D rationale: Correct. Shrugging the shoulders assesses cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). This nerve controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are responsible for shoulder movements. Testing the strength of these muscles helps assess the integrity of cranial nerve XI.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, B, D, and F.
Choice A rationale:
The presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) is a sign of potential prenatal complication. Normally, urine should be protein negative. Proteinuria can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that includes high blood pressure and swelling, and can lead to preterm birth or other serious complications if not managed.
Choice B rationale:
The client’s blood pressure is 162/112 mm Hg, which is significantly higher than the normal range (less than 120/80 mm Hg). High blood pressure during pregnancy could indicate preeclampsia or other complications.
Choice C rationale:
The client’s respiratory rate is 16/min, which falls within the normal range (12-20 breaths per minute). Therefore, it does not indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Choice D rationale:
The client’s report of a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen is concerning. This could be a symptom of preeclampsia or other serious conditions and should be investigated further.
Choice E rationale:
The client’s gravida/parity (G3 P2 with one preterm birth) does not directly indicate a potential prenatal complication. However, a history of preterm birth could put the client at higher risk for another preterm birth.
Choice F rationale:
The client’s report of decreased fetal movement is concerning. Decreased fetal movement can be a sign of fetal distress or other complications and should be investigated further.
Choice G rationale:
The client’s urine does not contain ketones, which would indicate that the body is using fat for energy instead of glucose. This could occur in cases of poor nutrition or gestational diabetes. Since the urine is ketone negative, this does not indicate a potential prenatal complication.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The prescription for Levothyroxine 75 mcg PO daily at 0600 does not require clarification. It provides clear instructions for the medication, including the drug name, dosage, route, and timing. The administration time (0600) is specific, allowing the nurse to administer the medication accurately.
Choice B rationale:
The prescription for Digoxin 250 PO daily contains an error. The dosage (250) is missing the unit of measurement (e.g., mcg or mg). Without the unit, it is impossible to accurately administer the medication. This prescription needs clarification from the prescriber to ensure safe and precise administration.
Choice C rationale:
The prescription for Acetaminophen 650 mg PO Q6 hours does not require clarification. It provides clear instructions for the medication, including the drug name, dosage (650 mg), route (PO), and frequency (every 6 hours). The dosing interval is appropriate and within the normal range for acetaminophen administration.
Choice D rationale:
The prescription for Ceftriaxone 1 g IV Q 24 hours does not require clarification. It provides clear instructions for the medication, including the drug name, dosage (1 g), route (IV), and frequency (every 24 hours). The dosing interval is appropriate for this antibiotic and allows for effective treatment of infections.
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