A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
Administer flumazenil to the client.
Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
The Correct Answer is B
= Answer is... Choice B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
Choice A rationale:
In the emergency department scenario described, the client has presented with symptoms suggestive of a diazepam overdose, indicating potential suicidal behavior. However, while evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is an important aspect of comprehensive care, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client's lethargy and respiratory depression require urgent intervention to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose and stabilize their condition. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, further assessment and intervention regarding suicidal behavior can be pursued as part of ongoing care and safety planning.
Choice B rationale:
Administering flumazenil to the client is the most appropriate next action in the management of a diazepam overdose. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam by competitively blocking benzodiazepine binding sites on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. By antagonizing the effects of diazepam, flumazenil can rapidly restore consciousness and respiratory drive in clients experiencing benzodiazepine-induced central nervous system depression, such as lethargy and hypoventilation. Prompt administration of flumazenil is crucial for preventing further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory arrest in overdose situations.
Choice C rationale:
Monitoring the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis is an important aspect of nursing care during IV therapy; however, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. While maintaining IV access is essential for administering medications and fluids, including flumazenil in this case, the urgent need to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose takes precedence over monitoring for IV complications. Thrombophlebitis can be assessed and managed concurrently with the administration of flumazenil and other aspects of the client's care once their immediate medical condition is stabilized.
Choice D rationale:
Initiating seizure precautions for the client may be warranted in certain clinical situations, particularly if the client has a history of seizures or if there are concerns about potential withdrawal or rebound seizures following the administration of flumazenil. However, in the context of a diazepam overdose with central nervous system depression and lethargy, the primary focus is on reversing the effects of the overdose and restoring respiratory function. Seizure precautions can be implemented if indicated based on ongoing assessment and clinical judgment but are not the immediate next action following initiation of IV access and administration of flumazenil.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Heart rate 58/min. Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic medication, can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a side effect. However, the heart rate of 58/min is within the normal range for adults, so it is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Choice B rationale:
Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL. A fasting blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is within the normal range (70-99 mg/dL) for adults. It is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Choice C rationale:
WBC count 2,900/mm3. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe reduction in white blood cell (WBC) count, which can lead to increased susceptibility to infections. A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 is significantly below the normal range (4,000-11,000/mm3) and is a contraindication for clozapine administration due to the risk of severe immunosuppression.
Choice D rationale:
Hgb 14 g/dL. Hemoglobin (Hgb) level of 14 g/dL is within the normal range for adult males (13.8-17.2 g/dL) and females (12.1-15.1 g/dL). It is not a contraindication for clozapine administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diazepam (Valium) is not the correct choice in this situation. Diazepam is a sedative and muscle relaxant but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The client's respiratory rate of 10/min indicates a potential opioid overdose, and the appropriate intervention is to administer naloxone to reverse the opioid effects.
Choice B rationale:
Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is not the correct choice in this scenario. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer but would not address the respiratory depression caused by hydromorphone. The priority is to address the respiratory depression promptly with naloxone.
Choice C rationale:
Ibuprofen (Advil) is not the correct choice in this situation. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation but is not appropriate for reversing opioid-induced respiratory depression. Naloxone is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose in this case.
Choice D rationale:
Naloxone (Narcan) is the correct choice. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression. Given the client's low respiratory rate, naloxone should be administered promptly to counteract the effects of hydromorphone. This is the most appropriate and potentially life-saving intervention for this client.
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