A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.

Administer flumazenil to the client.

Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.

Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

= Answer is... Choice B. Administer flumazenil to the client.

Choice A rationale:

In the emergency department scenario described, the client has presented with symptoms suggestive of a diazepam overdose, indicating potential suicidal behavior. However, while evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is an important aspect of comprehensive care, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. The client's lethargy and respiratory depression require urgent intervention to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose and stabilize their condition. Once the client's immediate medical needs are addressed, further assessment and intervention regarding suicidal behavior can be pursued as part of ongoing care and safety planning.

Choice B rationale:

Administering flumazenil to the client is the most appropriate next action in the management of a diazepam overdose. Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, effectively reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as diazepam by competitively blocking benzodiazepine binding sites on the gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor complex. By antagonizing the effects of diazepam, flumazenil can rapidly restore consciousness and respiratory drive in clients experiencing benzodiazepine-induced central nervous system depression, such as lethargy and hypoventilation. Prompt administration of flumazenil is crucial for preventing further respiratory compromise and potential respiratory arrest in overdose situations.

Choice C rationale:

Monitoring the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis is an important aspect of nursing care during IV therapy; however, it is not the immediate priority in this scenario. While maintaining IV access is essential for administering medications and fluids, including flumazenil in this case, the urgent need to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose takes precedence over monitoring for IV complications. Thrombophlebitis can be assessed and managed concurrently with the administration of flumazenil and other aspects of the client's care once their immediate medical condition is stabilized.

Choice D rationale:

Initiating seizure precautions for the client may be warranted in certain clinical situations, particularly if the client has a history of seizures or if there are concerns about potential withdrawal or rebound seizures following the administration of flumazenil. However, in the context of a diazepam overdose with central nervous system depression and lethargy, the primary focus is on reversing the effects of the overdose and restoring respiratory function. Seizure precautions can be implemented if indicated based on ongoing assessment and clinical judgment but are not the immediate next action following initiation of IV access and administration of flumazenil.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and can increase the risk of bleeding when used with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant medication. Combining these two medications can lead to excessive bleeding and is considered incompatible.

Choice B rationale:

Magnesium hydroxide is an antacid and does not have significant interactions with warfarin. It does not affect the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.

Choice C rationale:

Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.

Choice D rationale:

Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and other heart conditions. It does not have a significant interaction with warfarin.

A. Administer a laxative to the client. B. Keep the client on NPO status. C. Place the client's head of bed flat. D. Apply heat to the client's abdomen.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Administering a laxative to a client with acute appendicitis is contraindicated. Laxatives can increase bowel motility, which may aggravate the inflamed appendix and lead to rupture. Rupture of the appendix can result in a life-threatening condition known as peritonitis.

Choice B rationale:

Keeping the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status is the correct choice. NPO status is essential in the management of acute appendicitis. It helps to rest the bowel, prevents stimulation of the appendix, and decreases the risk of rupture. Oral intake, including food and fluids, is usually restricted until the client undergoes surgery to remove the inflamed appendix (appendectomy).

Choice C rationale:

Placing the client's head of bed flat is not the optimal position for a client with acute appendicitis. Elevating the head of the bed slightly (semi-Fowler's position) can help reduce discomfort and minimize pressure on the abdomen. This position is more comfortable for the client and can aid in pain management.

Choice D rationale:

Applying heat to the client's abdomen is not recommended in acute appendicitis. Heat application can increase blood flow to the area, potentially worsening inflammation and exacerbating pain. Cold packs or ice packs are sometimes used to provide comfort, but their application should be done cautiously to avoid skin damage. However, in many cases, healthcare providers prefer to avoid temperature applications to prevent masking symptoms and signs of worsening appendicitis.

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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago. The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets 20 minutes ago.
The client is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 10/min.
After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?