A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube with a water seal drainage system.
Upon assessment, the nurse notes tidaling in the water seal.
Which of the following is an explanation for the tidaling?
The lung has re-expanded.
There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system.
The system is working properly.
The tubing is partially obstructed by clots.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C, the system is working properly.
Choice A rationale: The lung has re-expanded is incorrect. If the lung has re-expanded, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the pleural space would be restored to its normal negative pressure. Tidaling indicates that there is still air or fluid in the pleural space that needs to be drained
Choice B rationale: There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system is incorrect. A loop of tubing below the drainage system would not cause tidaling in the water seal chamber, but it could cause fluid accumulation in the tubing, which could impair the drainage and increase the risk of infection. The tubing should be straight and free of kinks or loops
Choice C rationale: The system is working properly is correct. Tidaling in the water seal chamber means that the water level rises and falls with the patient’s respirations. This is normal and expected, as it indicates that the chest tube is patent and connected to the pleural space, and that the drainage system is airtight and preventing air or fluid from entering the pleural space. Tidaling should stop when the lung is fully re-expanded or the chest tube is clamped
Choice D rationale: The tubing is partially obstructed by clots is incorrect. If the tubing is partially obstructed by clots, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the chest tube would not be able to drain the air or fluid from the pleural space. The water level in the water seal chamber would be stagnant, and the patient may experience respiratory distress. The tubing should be checked regularly for clots and milked gently if needed
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Taking temperature within 30 minutes after the first morning void is specific to ovulation prediction kits, not the basal body temperature method.
Choice B rationale:
Taking temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed is not accurate for tracking basal body temperature fluctuations related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice C rationale:
Taking temperature every night before going to bed does not provide consistent basal body temperature readings, as the body temperature needs to be taken at the same time every morning to detect subtle changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Choice D rationale:
This is the correct answer. To use the basal body temperature method effectively, the client should take their temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed every morning. This helps in detecting the slight rise in basal body temperature that occurs after ovulation, indicating the fertile period.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B: Assign the child to a negative air pressure room.
Choice A rationale: Assessing the child for Koplik spots is not appropriate in this situation because Koplik spots are associated with measles, not varicella. Koplik spots are small, white, irregular lesions that appear on the buccal mucosa during the prodromal phase of measles. They do not present in cases of varicella, which is characterized by a pruritic, vesicular rash.
Choice B rationale: Assigning the child to a negative air pressure room is the most suitable action because varicella is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles. A negative air pressure room helps to contain these particles and minimize the risk of infection transmission to other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors. Airborne precautions are the recommended infection control measures for managing varicella cases in healthcare settings.
Choice C rationale: Utilizing droplet precautions alone is insufficient for managing varicella because the virus can also be spread through airborne particles. While droplet precautions may be a component of the overall infection control strategy, they are inadequate without the additional implementation of airborne precautions, such as a negative air pressure room.
Choice D rationale: Administering aspirin to a child with a viral illness is generally contraindicated due to the potential risk of Reye's syndrome, a rare but severe condition characterized by liver failure and encephalopathy. It is essential to follow appropriate guidelines for managing fever and discomfort in pediatric patients with varicella, which typically involve using acetaminophen or ibuprofen instead of aspirin.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
