A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube with a water seal drainage system.
Upon assessment, the nurse notes tidaling in the water seal.
Which of the following is an explanation for the tidaling?
The lung has re-expanded.
There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system.
The system is working properly.
The tubing is partially obstructed by clots.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is Choice C, the system is working properly.
Choice A rationale: The lung has re-expanded is incorrect. If the lung has re-expanded, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the pleural space would be restored to its normal negative pressure. Tidaling indicates that there is still air or fluid in the pleural space that needs to be drained
Choice B rationale: There is a loop of tubing below the drainage system is incorrect. A loop of tubing below the drainage system would not cause tidaling in the water seal chamber, but it could cause fluid accumulation in the tubing, which could impair the drainage and increase the risk of infection. The tubing should be straight and free of kinks or loops
Choice C rationale: The system is working properly is correct. Tidaling in the water seal chamber means that the water level rises and falls with the patient’s respirations. This is normal and expected, as it indicates that the chest tube is patent and connected to the pleural space, and that the drainage system is airtight and preventing air or fluid from entering the pleural space. Tidaling should stop when the lung is fully re-expanded or the chest tube is clamped
Choice D rationale: The tubing is partially obstructed by clots is incorrect. If the tubing is partially obstructed by clots, there would be no tidaling in the water seal chamber, as the chest tube would not be able to drain the air or fluid from the pleural space. The water level in the water seal chamber would be stagnant, and the patient may experience respiratory distress. The tubing should be checked regularly for clots and milked gently if needed
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A client who received a Mantoux test 48 hr ago and has an induration does not require immediate follow-up care. An induration at the injection site indicates a positive reaction, but further evaluation and management are necessary, not urgent.
Choice B rationale:
A client taking warfarin with an INR of 1.8 requires follow-up care. The normal range for INR in a client taking warfarin is usually 2.0 to 3.0. An INR of 1.8 suggests inadequate anticoagulation, putting the client at risk of thromboembolic events. Dose adjustment or other interventions are needed to bring the INR within the therapeutic range.
Choice C rationale:
A client scheduled for a colonoscopy and taking sodium phosphate does not necessarily require immediate follow-up care. However, sodium phosphate can cause electrolyte imbalances, so monitoring for any signs of electrolyte disturbances is essential, but it does not mandate urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
A client taking bumetanide with a potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L requires follow-up care. The normal range for potassium is typically 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. A potassium level below the normal range (hypokalemia) can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. The client may need potassium supplements or dietary adjustments to correct the imbalance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Explanation: Sweet potato is a food that is high in potassium, which is an electrolyte that regulates fluid balance, nerve impulses, and muscle contractions in the body. A medium- sized sweet potato contains about 541 mg of potassium, which is more than 10% of the recommended daily intake for adults. Baked chicken breast, wheat bread, and canned green beans are foods that are low or moderate in potassium, containing less than 300 mg per serving.
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