A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

"These discomforts should decrease with time."

"Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue."

"Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels."

"You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

C. It acknowledges the client's symptoms and provides a likely explanation related to hormonal changes associated with aging. It opens the door for further discussion and potential interventions to address the underlying cause.
A. This response dismisses the client's symptoms without addressing the underlying cause or providing potential solutions.
B. The opposite tends to occur with age – vaginal tissue can become thinner and drier due to decreasing estrogen levels, leading to symptoms like vaginal dryness and itching.
D. While avoiding intercourse may be recommended in certain situations, such as if there is discomfort or pain, it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Additionally, it may not be necessary if appropriate treatments are pursued to alleviate vaginal dryness and itching.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Clients with nephrotic syndrome should have low to normal protein diet. This is because high protein diet damages the nephrons worsening the renal insufficiency in nephrotic syndrome.

High potassium, phosphorus diet is not recommended

Adequate carbohydrate intake is key.

A. Diphenhydramine B. Ondansetron C. Sertraline D. Methylprednisolone

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Ondansetron is a commonly used medication for preventing nausea and vomiting induced by chemotherapy. It belongs to a class of drugs called serotonin receptor antagonists, which work by blocking serotonin receptors in the brain and gastrointestinal tract, thereby reducing the sensation of nausea and the urge to vomit. Ondansetron is often administered prior to chemotherapy to help prevent these side effects.
A. Diphenhydramine works by blocking histamine receptors in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. However, it is not commonly used as a first-line antiemetic for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
C. Sertraline is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and is not used specifically for preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
D. Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid medication that has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant effects.

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A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is planning care for a client who has developed nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer prior to chemotherapy?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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